Subject: What does it mean? |
Bible Note: Greetings Steve! I thought we agreed on the 'beds issue'! I agree that it is the most likely reading in the manuscripts. As far as Acts 2:38 is concerned, I think that the problem is simply one with the English language. We don't have as clear a system of pronouns as does Greek. So, the translators were trying to be literal, but this is one case where being too literal in English is misleading! :-) Have a great weekend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |