Bible Question:
Tim, What then, does "for the forgiveness of YOUR sins" mean? Is it just a statement dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence? Why is it there? Have all the translators of various versions made some kind of mistake? You may choose to deny the obvious, but I cannot. Although I studied Greek in college, I am hardly a scholar. So, I cannot argue intelligently about Greek sentence structure. But again, all the translations I have read make quite clear that forgiveness of sins follows repentance AND baptism. I really don't understand the hang up. It is not as though you are earning anything. You are just doing what God has commanded, and in the end you receive a gift which never could have been earned. To God be the glory. |
Bible Answer: Greetings Sniper! As I stated in my previous post, 'forgiveness of sins' is a result of the command to 'repent'. So, it is not just 'dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence'. However, it is not gramatically associated with the command to 'be baptized'. Thus, it is not: "Repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins", but "Repent for the forgiveness of sins". The translation isn't really the problem, it is simply that English has no way to express 2nd person singular as opposed to 2nd person plural. In Greek, the difference is perfectly clear. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |