Subject: "am I wrong in thinking that you pray to |
Bible Note: You mention that Paul clearly demonstrates that Jesus is the Second Adam. Why do you suppose that he did not clearly expound the doctrine you put forth here of Mary being the second Eve? If it is so absolutely central to Christianity, why is it not mentioned ONCE in the epistles? Justification is talked about incessantly. So is grace and faith and the role of works and the absolute centrality of Christ as the redeemer. NOTHING about Mary in any of Paul's epistles. James doesn't refer to her. Peter (the "first pope") doesn't either. Since I do not hold that Revelation 12 is a good argument, I hold that John doesn't either. Nowhere! Nowhere! Two of the gospels do not even record the story of Christ's birth and the Anunciation! Face it: Emmaus. Mary was chosen by God, therefore she was blessed. Not sinless. ---- Let's look at Luke 1:28 And coming in, he said to her, "Greetings, favored one! The Lord is with you." --Luke 1:28 (NASB) The angel went to her and said, "Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you." --Luke 1:28 (NIV) And having come in, the angel said to her, "Rejoice, highly favored one, the Lord is with you; blessed are you among women! --Luke 1:28 (NKJV) And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. --Luke 1:28 (KJV) And he came to her and said, "Hail, O favored one, the Lord is with you!" --Luke 1:28 (RSV) And he came to her and said, "Greetings, O favored one, the Lord is with you!" --Luke 1:28 (ESV) And coming to her, he said, "Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you." --Luke 1:28 (the *Catholic* New American Bible) All of these versions use the word "favored" or "highly favored." The exact Greek word is used in one other place in the New Testament. Does it refer to Mary? No. Jesus? Nope. Then to whom does it refer? Let's take a look: "to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved." --Ephesians 1:6 (NASB) "to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us in the Beloved." --Ephesians 1:6 (ESV) for the praise of the glory of his grace that he granted us in the beloved." --Ephesians 1:6 (New American Bible) "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved." --Ephesians 1:6 (KJV) So the word is translated "freely bestowed," "blessed," or "made accepted" in these three translations. However, you translate it, the exact word used to describe Mary (which you say implies her sinlessness) is used to describe ALL CHRISTIANS. So either all Christians have no sin or your argument deflates. Make Christ the center of your theology. He certainly is the center of Scripture! --Joe! |