Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | Colossians 2:16 ¶ Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day-- |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Colossians 2:16 ¶ Therefore let no one judge you in regard to food and drink or in regard to [the observance of] a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day. |
Subject: what is the true worship day sun. or sat |
Bible Note: I should have done this in the beginning, but I didn't. So here is the meaning for "kai" from Strong's Concordance. Please note that "kai" can be translated either "and" or "or". KAI means: and, also, both, but, even, for, if, indeed, likewise, moreover, or, so, that, then, therefore, when, yea, yet. So which biblical scholars have claimed that it should be or can only be translated as "and" rather than "or"? And when (approximate year) did these scholars come to this conclusion? Tyndale was the first man to tranlate the Bible from the original Hebrew and Greek texts into English. Cloverdale's Bible was taken from Dutch and Latin sources. Roger's Bible was almost wholly copied from Tyndales. And the "Great Bible" was a compilation from Tyndale, Rogers, and Cloverdale. And the Geneva Bible was mainly based on Tyndale's, but with strongly Calvinistic notes. The original KJV in 1611 was extremely similar to Tyndale's translation (1525), even though the 1611 KJV was a revision, it was solely based on Tyndale's work. The KJV of today is an Americanized version of the 1611 KJV. Below is the type of "difference" between Tyndale's Bible, the 1611 KJV, and today's KJV. Tyndale's Bible - Hebrews 11:1: Fayth is a sure confidence off thynges which are hoped for, and a certayntie off thynges which are not sene. 1611 KJV - Hebrews 11:1: Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the euidence of things not seen. Americanized KJV - Hebrews 11:1: Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. And I would also like to note that the original Greek manuscripts that Tyndale used to translate to English, are shown to have used the Greek word "e" which (just like the word "kai") in Col. 2:16, can be translated either "and" or "or". So it would seem that regardless of which original "text" the scholars used to translate into English -- it comes down to their interpretation or understanding of the actual verse, as to whether they translate either of those Greek words to "and" or "or". So which Bible interpretation do you use that states "and" in Col. 2:16?? ... and when and who authored that version? I'm just curious here. Btw, I didn't check into the "KJV only" articles. I checked into each particular Bible to get the information. I didn't want a biased view. Thanks for encouraging me to do so. God bless. |