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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 77622 | ||
My brother in our Lord, Tim, God's day to you, It is apparent some just want to read the English. I wonder and have asked why Acts 2:38 is not translated, so Campbelites and others can try to use it to say we need to be baptized to be saved. I've never rec'd a clear answer. I'll be away until Sunday night ... if a post needs attention, will you cover for me? I know we differ on the "beds issue". Steve |
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2 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77636 | ||
Greetings Steve! I thought we agreed on the 'beds issue'! I agree that it is the most likely reading in the manuscripts. As far as Acts 2:38 is concerned, I think that the problem is simply one with the English language. We don't have as clear a system of pronouns as does Greek. So, the translators were trying to be literal, but this is one case where being too literal in English is misleading! :-) Have a great weekend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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