Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | sniper | 77149 | ||
Tim, What then, does "for the forgiveness of YOUR sins" mean? Is it just a statement dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence? Why is it there? Have all the translators of various versions made some kind of mistake? You may choose to deny the obvious, but I cannot. Although I studied Greek in college, I am hardly a scholar. So, I cannot argue intelligently about Greek sentence structure. But again, all the translations I have read make quite clear that forgiveness of sins follows repentance AND baptism. I really don't understand the hang up. It is not as though you are earning anything. You are just doing what God has commanded, and in the end you receive a gift which never could have been earned. To God be the glory. |
||||||
2 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77182 | ||
Greetings Sniper! As I stated in my previous post, 'forgiveness of sins' is a result of the command to 'repent'. So, it is not just 'dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence'. However, it is not gramatically associated with the command to 'be baptized'. Thus, it is not: "Repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins", but "Repent for the forgiveness of sins". The translation isn't really the problem, it is simply that English has no way to express 2nd person singular as opposed to 2nd person plural. In Greek, the difference is perfectly clear. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
3 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | sniper | 77559 | ||
I have a feeling that you are never going to change you position on this issue. I will move on with one last parting shot. You are really having to do alot of grammatical gymnastics to come to your stance. I know you don't see it that way. God Bless, Sniper |
||||||
4 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77580 | ||
Greetings Sniper! You are correct about one thing and incorrect about another. I seriously doubt that I will ever see baptism as necessary for salvations because salvation is not based upon anything I DO. (see eph. 4:8-10). :-) But, you are incorrect that I do not see Acts 2:38 that way. Grammar has rules. God knows grammar! :-) Acts 2:38 just can't be made to say what you say - it violates the rules of grammar. But, I appreciate the dialogue! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
5 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 77622 | ||
My brother in our Lord, Tim, God's day to you, It is apparent some just want to read the English. I wonder and have asked why Acts 2:38 is not translated, so Campbelites and others can try to use it to say we need to be baptized to be saved. I've never rec'd a clear answer. I'll be away until Sunday night ... if a post needs attention, will you cover for me? I know we differ on the "beds issue". Steve |
||||||
6 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77636 | ||
Greetings Steve! I thought we agreed on the 'beds issue'! I agree that it is the most likely reading in the manuscripts. As far as Acts 2:38 is concerned, I think that the problem is simply one with the English language. We don't have as clear a system of pronouns as does Greek. So, the translators were trying to be literal, but this is one case where being too literal in English is misleading! :-) Have a great weekend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||