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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77188 | ||
Hi Tim, To your question; "If Baptism is necessary for salvation, is that not salvation by works?" Answer: No. |
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2 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Timothy Paul | 77194 | ||
Hi Disciplerami, If there were any one thing that fallen man could do to ensure his own salvation, such as being baptised, that act would not only prove Eph. 2:9 to be false, but Jesus saying "it is finished" in Jhn 19:30, would be invalidated as well. Please see my post below, for Eddie Snipes is able to explain it so much better than I Blessings, Tim |
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3 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77254 | ||
Hi Tim, Ephesians 2:9 and John 19:30 are not invalidated by God's requirement that a man get immersed. The only thing that would invalidate the principle of salvation by grace is if the man's--who is being baptized--faith is in the work instead of in the work of Christ. The baptized person, who has been taught right, does not have faith in the water, in the baptizER, nor in himself: he is "raised by faith in the operation of God" at work in baptism (Col.2:12). Thanks. - Disciplerami |
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