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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | sniper | 77149 | ||
Tim, What then, does "for the forgiveness of YOUR sins" mean? Is it just a statement dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence? Why is it there? Have all the translators of various versions made some kind of mistake? You may choose to deny the obvious, but I cannot. Although I studied Greek in college, I am hardly a scholar. So, I cannot argue intelligently about Greek sentence structure. But again, all the translations I have read make quite clear that forgiveness of sins follows repentance AND baptism. I really don't understand the hang up. It is not as though you are earning anything. You are just doing what God has commanded, and in the end you receive a gift which never could have been earned. To God be the glory. |
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2 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Timothy Paul | 77179 | ||
Yes, it is possible for forgiveness to follow baptism, but is it necessary? Luk 5:20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee. Luk 7:48,50 And he said unto her, Thy sins are forgiven... And he said to the woman, Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace. 1Jo 2:12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake. So I must ask the question, If Baptism is necessary for salvation, is that not salvation by works? Man can do Nothing to earn it, remember Ephesians 2:9? Eternally yours, Tim |
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3 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77188 | ||
Hi Tim, To your question; "If Baptism is necessary for salvation, is that not salvation by works?" Answer: No. |
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4 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Timothy Paul | 77194 | ||
Hi Disciplerami, If there were any one thing that fallen man could do to ensure his own salvation, such as being baptised, that act would not only prove Eph. 2:9 to be false, but Jesus saying "it is finished" in Jhn 19:30, would be invalidated as well. Please see my post below, for Eddie Snipes is able to explain it so much better than I Blessings, Tim |
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5 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77254 | ||
Hi Tim, Ephesians 2:9 and John 19:30 are not invalidated by God's requirement that a man get immersed. The only thing that would invalidate the principle of salvation by grace is if the man's--who is being baptized--faith is in the work instead of in the work of Christ. The baptized person, who has been taught right, does not have faith in the water, in the baptizER, nor in himself: he is "raised by faith in the operation of God" at work in baptism (Col.2:12). Thanks. - Disciplerami |
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