Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | disciplerami, support forgiveness last. | Bible general Archive 1 | Searcher56 | 77107 | ||
Stop just looking at the English translations ... look at the Greek. Notes from experts: A. T. Robertson writes in his "Word Pictures of the New Testament": "Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve. The first thing to do is make a radical and complete change of heart and life.Then let each one be baptized after this change has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed "in the name of Jesus Christ"" D.B. Wallace, writes in his "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics": To begin, let us briefly recall that the original Greek for the cited passage is 'metanoesate kai baptistheto hekastos hymon'. Here, an aorist active imperative (second person plural) verb states a condition (protasis) upon which the fulfillment (apodosis) of another verb in the aorist imperative (third person singular) depends, and hence the mood and person establishes the force of that second verb as "each one of you must be baptized". |
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2 | disciplerami, support forgiveness last. | Bible general Archive 1 | sniper | 77124 | ||
Yes, the first thing to do is to make a radical and complete change of heart and life. Then, let each one of you be baptized after this change (repentance) has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed. But, why is baptism performed? Neither you, nor the experts you cite have answered that question. The answer is in the very next phrase of Acts 2:38. Why stop short of finishing the verse? It finishes,"for the forgiveness of sins." | ||||||
3 | disciplerami, support forgiveness last. | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 77131 | ||
Greetings Sniper! If I may intrude, I think that you missed the point of Searcher's post. The phrase 'for the forgiveness of sins' is a plural phrase with a plural pronoun. The command to repent is a plural imperative. Thus, Acts 2:38 says, "Repent for the forgivess of sins...". However, the command 'to be baptized' is a singular imperative. It cannot be grammatically associated with the plural phrase 'for the forgiveness of sin'. So, in English, baptize does not result in the forgiveness of sins, but repentance does. The command 'to be batized' is a parenthetical statement. Acts 2:38 does not give a reason for baptism, only the command. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | sniper | 77149 | ||
Tim, What then, does "for the forgiveness of YOUR sins" mean? Is it just a statement dangling without meaning or relevence to the sentence? Why is it there? Have all the translators of various versions made some kind of mistake? You may choose to deny the obvious, but I cannot. Although I studied Greek in college, I am hardly a scholar. So, I cannot argue intelligently about Greek sentence structure. But again, all the translations I have read make quite clear that forgiveness of sins follows repentance AND baptism. I really don't understand the hang up. It is not as though you are earning anything. You are just doing what God has commanded, and in the end you receive a gift which never could have been earned. To God be the glory. |
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5 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Timothy Paul | 77179 | ||
Yes, it is possible for forgiveness to follow baptism, but is it necessary? Luk 5:20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee. Luk 7:48,50 And he said unto her, Thy sins are forgiven... And he said to the woman, Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace. 1Jo 2:12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake. So I must ask the question, If Baptism is necessary for salvation, is that not salvation by works? Man can do Nothing to earn it, remember Ephesians 2:9? Eternally yours, Tim |
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6 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77188 | ||
Hi Tim, To your question; "If Baptism is necessary for salvation, is that not salvation by works?" Answer: No. |
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7 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | Timothy Paul | 77194 | ||
Hi Disciplerami, If there were any one thing that fallen man could do to ensure his own salvation, such as being baptised, that act would not only prove Eph. 2:9 to be false, but Jesus saying "it is finished" in Jhn 19:30, would be invalidated as well. Please see my post below, for Eddie Snipes is able to explain it so much better than I Blessings, Tim |
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8 | What does it mean? | Bible general Archive 1 | disciplerami | 77254 | ||
Hi Tim, Ephesians 2:9 and John 19:30 are not invalidated by God's requirement that a man get immersed. The only thing that would invalidate the principle of salvation by grace is if the man's--who is being baptized--faith is in the work instead of in the work of Christ. The baptized person, who has been taught right, does not have faith in the water, in the baptizER, nor in himself: he is "raised by faith in the operation of God" at work in baptism (Col.2:12). Thanks. - Disciplerami |
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