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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Tomret | 183896 | ||
Hi Brian, good to hear from you again. If Jesus came in final judgement in 70AD - and yes, I beleive He did - It confirms His prophesies of that event throughout the Gospels, and it removes the argument of atheists, Jews, Muslims, and others that He was NOT the Messiah because the things He predicted didn't come to pass in the time frame indicated. You ask why are they teaching it? By "they" I assume you mean Preterists. Why does any denomination, creed, or faith teach their interpretation over another? Because they beleive it to be the Truth. I beleive Matt. 24:34 was a prophesy to the disciples that the generation living at the time He spoke would not pass until the things He had just described came to pass. And I beleive these things did come to pass culminating in His judgement in 70AD, confirming His prophesy. Let me ask you to mentally travel back in time and be one of those disciples. Leave your beleifs here because they didn't yet have a beleif system, they were learning one. Jesus had been describing the signs that would precede His coming and the end of the age. Then He said, "Verily (Listen up! What I'm about to say is important!) I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled." Would you have honestly thought He was talking about a people living thousands of years later? OK, I know you would like to stay there, but come on back to the present. If one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day, then two of His days could be two thousand of our years, right? Amazing how the math works out. Now, allow me to digress a bit to give you some idea where I'm coming from. Although I became a Christian in my younger days I never became a serious student of the Bible. I read it from time to time but didn't get much out of it. Most of the OT may as well have been in Hebrew. The NT was easier to understand, but Jesus seemed to be telling the disciples and others that some of them would live to see His coming. That wasn't what I'd been taught. I couldn't tolerate the doubt this caused me so I had to conclude I was just too dumb to understand it. Keep in mind this was before I had heard of Preterism. After I retired 3 1/2 years ago I decided to make another attempt. I would sit and read and before long find myself nodding off. And I got about as much out of it while nodded off as when awake! I would hear something on a religious documentary and not knowing where to go in the Bible to see if it were true, I turned to the internet. Before long I stumbled upon a Preterist site. The more I read the more sense it made. Suddenly the NT came alive, and so did I. I've been studying intently - sometimes obsessivly - ever since. Now I'm by no means an expert - if what I know would fill a kitchen cupboard then what I don't know would fill a warehouse, but I hope this is helpful to you. Researching to try to answer your questions has been helpful to me. Tom |
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2 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Brian#9 | 183943 | ||
Hello Tom, You are not the only one that is benefiting from this post. This is a two way street. Questions to be asked about the time from the Cross to 70A.D. and until now. Matt. 24:14; "in ALL the world," "unto ALL nations," (heathen) did this happen? Matt. 24:15; did this happen? Matt.24:21; has this happen? Matt. 24:22; tribulation so great that no 'flesh'(man) saved, the days are shortened so the 'elect'(remnant)would be? Matt. 24:27; was His Coming as noticeable as this? Matt. 24:29; did this happen? Matt. 24:30 did the tribes (Israelites) mourn at the sight of Jesus Coming with Power and great Glory? Matt. 24:31; did a trumpet sound and all the 'elect' [ NT:1588 eklektos, eklektee, eklekton (eklegoo), (from Thayer's Greek Lexicon)(without the genitive Theou), Matt. 24:22 (with the addition of tou Christou, as the genitive possessor), Matt. 24:31 ] come from four winds, and from one of heaven to the other? Tom, verse 14; (not yet - to possible) today. As for verses 15,21,22,27,29,30 and 31 not yet, but getting close? Sorry about the 'hear' and not 'here' in my last post. You and I both agree that Jesus did not know when the Father was to have Him return. How could He predict an alleged time frame?( generation - being 30-40 years or whatever ) He did know that a remnant would be saved.(Deu. 28:13) He did know that He could come at any time. (Luke 12:40, 2 Peter 3:10, 1 Thess. 5:2, Rev. 16:15) If He knew that He was Coming back during that time frame, why did He teach His imminent return? Is not the primary definition of generation (genea) race, kind, family, stock, and breed? Correct me if I am wrong, but it seems that the difference between the primary and secondary meaning of a word, and our English is the root of our differences. Is this true? In the Quest of Truth, Brian |
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3 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | DocTrinsograce | 183953 | ||
Hi, Brian... When you address a person directly after their post, it isn't necessary to mark it as a question. They will be notified of the post and will respond if they choose to do so. However, when you mark it as a question, it shows up on the "front page" as though it is a question to the forum as a whole. Consequently, we try to mark things as questions only when they are of that nature. This convention works very well, allowing new forum users to be "heard" in the midst of the hubub of general discussion. :-) Thank you! In Him, Doc |
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4 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Brian#9 | 183954 | ||
Thank you Sir, Will do so in the future. Back to stumbling through the Greek to English, English to the Greek In His Hand, Brian |
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