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NASB | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "I assure you and most solemnly say to you, there are some of those standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
Subject: Why 70 A.D. and why predictions |
Bible Note: Thanks stj for your generous comments. Your observations are very insightful. First let me note the Septuagint version of this verse: "8:21 And the Lord God smelled a smell of sweetness, and the Lord God having considered, said, I will not any more curse the earth, because of the works of men, because the imagination of man is intently bent upon evil things from his youth, I will not therefore any more smite all living flesh as I have done." The only difference I wish to note here is that instead of "said in His heart," He only "said" here indicating the words were spoken not communicated telepathically as I previously suggested. Promise does not appear in Gen. 8:21. As you noted previously, chapter 9 is a continuation and elaboration of verse 21 thus they are linked together. You correctly note the word destroy does not appear here. Indeed the flood did not destroy the earth but the inhabitants of it save those on the ark. As for the comma you mention, the original Hebrew had no punctuation - or vowels for that matter.Now, I arrived at these verses seeking evidence that the NT interpretations of many futurists indicating vaporization of the earth and dissolving of the heavens is in error. Even though I admitted for ever could be a long time as well as eternal, I still take Ecc. 1:4 to mean eternal. I agree about OT events being twofold foretelling the final judgement, but the question is when. I think on 1 Thess. 4:16-17 we will have much agreement. I beleive this absolutely describes the saints being taken up to be with the Lord. But, again we will have differences on when. Indulge me for a moment and consider the possibility that the 2nd coming occured in 70AD as you read the following: http://www.preteristarchive.com/Preterism/stevens-ed_p_01.html : Silence Demands a Rapture, which brought me back to the first question I had when first exposed to the preterist view - why did no one make any mention of the judgement after the fact? For several decades after 70AD virtually nothing was written. It even occured to me then that a literal rapture would account for it, but all that I read from the modern preterist writers saw being caught up as symbolic. Now this writer has convinced me the rapture, being caught up in the air, was literal. If all true Christians were taken up, there was no one left to explain the scriptures, so succeeding generations were left to try to interpret them. With those that were left being of the persuasion that their Messiah - a worldly warrior king - was yet to come, how long was it until anybody even tried to understand the Gospels and words of the Apostles? Did this future expectation influence their interpretation? And consider their plight - the NT was not in a book form. They had no concordance or commentaries or internet. This could explain the multitude of interpretations we have. Now to your last point, does not "all prophesy" include the coming in judgement? If we are under the new law, does that not verify the judgement is past? Tom |