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NASB | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "I assure you and most solemnly say to you, there are some of those standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
Bible Question (short): 70A.D. or not? |
Question (full): Hello Tom, You are not the only one that is benefiting from this post. This is a two way street. Questions to be asked about the time from the Cross to 70A.D. and until now. Matt. 24:14; "in ALL the world," "unto ALL nations," (heathen) did this happen? Matt. 24:15; did this happen? Matt.24:21; has this happen? Matt. 24:22; tribulation so great that no 'flesh'(man) saved, the days are shortened so the 'elect'(remnant)would be? Matt. 24:27; was His Coming as noticeable as this? Matt. 24:29; did this happen? Matt. 24:30 did the tribes (Israelites) mourn at the sight of Jesus Coming with Power and great Glory? Matt. 24:31; did a trumpet sound and all the 'elect' [ NT:1588 eklektos, eklektee, eklekton (eklegoo), (from Thayer's Greek Lexicon)(without the genitive Theou), Matt. 24:22 (with the addition of tou Christou, as the genitive possessor), Matt. 24:31 ] come from four winds, and from one of heaven to the other? Tom, verse 14; (not yet - to possible) today. As for verses 15,21,22,27,29,30 and 31 not yet, but getting close? Sorry about the 'hear' and not 'here' in my last post. You and I both agree that Jesus did not know when the Father was to have Him return. How could He predict an alleged time frame?( generation - being 30-40 years or whatever ) He did know that a remnant would be saved.(Deu. 28:13) He did know that He could come at any time. (Luke 12:40, 2 Peter 3:10, 1 Thess. 5:2, Rev. 16:15) If He knew that He was Coming back during that time frame, why did He teach His imminent return? Is not the primary definition of generation (genea) race, kind, family, stock, and breed? Correct me if I am wrong, but it seems that the difference between the primary and secondary meaning of a word, and our English is the root of our differences. Is this true? In the Quest of Truth, Brian |