Results 1 - 9 of 9
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | Reformer Joe | 25569 | ||
Here is something important regarding the Sabbath which you touch on ever-so-briefly here, but needs to be addressed directly: Jesus kept the entire law of God perfectly to the complete and total satisfaction of His Father in heaven. That would include the Fourth Commandment. If He violated God's understanding of His own law, he was not sinless and we are still in our own sins. Therefore, Jesus was undoubtedly a Sabbath-keeper. The question becomes, however, how did Jesus' (perfect) understanding of what it means to keep the Sabbath completely differ from that of the Pharisees? The reason I bring up this point is that many Christians are under the impression that Jesus ignored the Sabbath or disregarded it. That is impossible to say if we say that Jesus fulfilled the Law. Therefore, those passages in which Jesus' confrontation with the Pharisees need to be viewed in the context of Jesus allegedly thumbing his nose at the Sabbath, but what exactly it means to follow Exodus 20:9-11. --Joe! |
||||||
2 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | casiv | 25585 | ||
Hello Joe, This is a good point, one that we should go further with. Your question, "How did Jesus' understanding of what it means to keep the sabbath completely differ from that of the pharisees?" I believe we first need to go to Matt 13:13 to see the difference between Jesus and the pharisees, out of the mouth of Jesus Himself. Matt 13:13 - Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. In Matt 13:14,15 Jesus explains the reason for them not hearing or seeing is because they do not seek to understand with their heart, but if they did they would be converted and healed. Jesus was sent here for the fact stated in Heb 2:14( to partake in the flesh and blood with the children and defeat death). He knew and understood the purpose and will of His Father with all clarity because He was the Father(John 1:1). He also understood Psalm 22:7-21 and that He was to be crucified as the means which enabled Him to defeat death and as we are told to blott out the handwriting of ordinances and all trespasses and sin by the nailing of Him to the cross.(Col 2:11-15). Col 2:14 - Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing to His cross; What the pharisees, and others mentioned along the same lines as them, did not recognize or understand is that, they did not recognize the One they were waiting for, as stated in John 1:11("He came unto His own, and His own received Him not.") and also they did not understand what we are told in Mark 2:28("He is the Lord of the sabbath"). Which has led us to: John 1:16 - And of His fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. John 1:17 - For the law was given by Moses, but grace and the truth came by Jesus Christ. In the days of Moses there was grace(Ex 34:6,7), and the law itself was an exhibition of truth. But when Jesus Christ came, He was Himself the Truth, the very personification of truth(John 14:6), and His life and death were the supreme manifestation of grace. I don't feel that Jesus ignored the sabbath, perhaps many do, but my point is that Jesus is the sabbath, everyday, and He became it everyday, upon the nailing to the cross as stated in Col 2:14 and the pharisees differ because they didn't even know who Jesus was. Peace, casiv |
||||||
3 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | djconklin | 25711 | ||
"upon the nailing to the cross as stated in Col 2:14" The "handwriting of ordinances that was against us" refers to the sacrifical ceremonial law. The Ten commandments are holy, just and good and were ordained to life but because of our sins condemns us. Without them we wouldn't know how we sin. In short, the Sabbath wasn't nailed to the cross. |
||||||
4 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | srbaegon | 25713 | ||
Another view................................ The "handwriting of ordinances that was against us" could not refer to the "sacrificial ceremonial law." It was that part of the Law which the faithful relied on to give atonement for the sins and trespasses committed. The ordinances against us were the original 10 which could never be kept perfectly and pointed out our sin. Steve |
||||||
5 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | djconklin | 25753 | ||
Steve, The only law that was ever called against us was the ceremonial law that was placed on the outside of the Ark while the Ten Commandments were inside the Ark: Deuteronomy 31:26 "Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee." The ceremonial law is against us because in order for us (if we had to do it today) to be saved from our sins we'd have to kill an innocent animal. We know that there are some who are blood-thirsty enough and cold-hearted enough so that it wouldn't faze them in the least. But, I think most of us would have to have some very serious discussions in order to get us to do it. Note also that Paul says that the Law was holy, just, and good (Rom. 7:12) and ordained to life (Rom. 7:10) and one in which he delighted (Rom. 7:22). You are 100 percent correct in noting that we as sinners cannot keep the Law on our own power. But, that doesn't mean that it is against us. As you pointed out the law points out our sins--now we flee to Christ and confess our sins so He can save us from the guilt and power and be of sin the double cure (Rock of Ages?). |
||||||
6 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | srbaegon | 25797 | ||
I'm puzzled. It appears you are saying that the ceremonial law is against us because the only way to be saved is to follow it. Is that correct? Steve |
||||||
7 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | djconklin | 25811 | ||
No, it is against us (as I understand it; you could call a rabbi to explain the verse) because in order for us to be saved by following it we have to kill an innocent animal who represents Jesus. How many volunteers do we have to kill Jesus? | ||||||
8 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | srbaegon | 25819 | ||
Your words condemn you, sir. According to this posting and the previous, you say we would be saved by the sacrifices. This is not the case at all. In all of Scripture righteousness is accounted to us on the basis of faith (Gen 15:6; Rom 4:1-8). If the sacrifices could save, we would not need Christ. Your idea of "works righteousness" fails miserably. Steve |
||||||
9 | what sabbath does it refer to? | Col 2:16 | djconklin | 25865 | ||
Steve, Oh boy! I AM NOT PREACHING A WORKS RIGHTEOUSNEES GOSPEL--OKAY!?! The sacrifices are completely ineffective if one does not have faith. On the other hand, faith without works is dead (James 2:20). --- "Your words condemn you, sir." Matthew 5:22. |
||||||