Subject: Is Limited Atonement Bibical? |
Bible Note: I didn't think you held to universalism, Zach. I was just using 1 Corinthians 15:22 as an example of how the word "all" in Scripture must be qualified by its context. It is far too simplistic to argue that because the word "all" is used that it must mean "every single human being" in every verse in which it appears. Sometimes it does and sometimes it doesn't. The question is whether the immediate context and the context of the whole canon of Scripture qualifies the "all" or not. Clear thinking and fruitful discussion can be muddled by oversimplifying the arguments. --Joe! |