Subject: Is Limited Atonement Bibical? |
Bible Note: Greetings John! I know how busy one can get! :-) I went to the site you mentioned. Here is what it said about Limited Atonement: ********************************************* Limited Atonement (Particular Redemption) Limited Atonement is a doctrine offered in answer to the question, "for whose sins did Christ atone?" The Bible teaches that Christ died for those whom God gave him to save (John 17:9). Christ died, indeed, for many people, but not all (Matthew 26:28). Specifically, Christ died for the invisible Church -- the sum total of all those who would ever rightly bear the name "Christian" (Ephesians 5:25). This doctrine often finds many objections, mostly from those who think that Limited Atonement does damage to evangelism. We have already seen that Christ will not lose any that the father has given to him (John 6:37). Christ's death was not a death of potential atonement for all people. Believing that Jesus' death was a potential, symbolic atonement for anyone who might possibly, in the future, accept him trivializes Christ's act of atonement. Christ died to atone for specific sins of specific sinners. Christ died to make holy the church. He did not atone for all men, because obviously all men are not saved. Evangelism is actually lifted up in this doctrine, for the evangelist may tell his congregation that Christ died for sinners, and that he will not lose any of those for whom he died! Source: www.reformed.org ************************************************* Notice the Scriptures that are used in this statement. a) John 17:9 - This verse deals with Jesus' prayer for His disciples. They are the ones who were given to Him from out of the world (v. 6). In verse 9, Jesus says that His praying for them, not for the world. No where in this passage does it say that He only atoned for the sins of some. Salvation is not even the context. b) Mt. 26:28 we have already dealt with. The word "many" is used in Romans 5 in a context which clearly indicates "all". Thus, "many" must not mean "some" as opposed to "all". c) Eph. 5:25 says that Christ died for the church, but it does not say that Jesus did not die for anyone else. The assumptions made from these verses simply don't line up with the clear inclusive statements of Scripture. a) 1 John 2:2 - " He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world." b) 1 John 4:14 - "And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world." c) John 1:29 - "The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, ‘‘Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!" d) John 4:42 - "They said to the woman, ‘‘We no longer believe just because of what you said; now we have heard for ourselves, and we know that this man really is the Savior of the world.”" e) 2 Cor. 5:19 - "that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation." If you do a search on "world" and "morant61", you will find a post I did a long time ago on how John uses the word "world" in his letters. Every single occurance is used as a reference to those who stand in opposition to God and hate Christians. Thus, "world" in 1 John 2:2 cannot mean "the elect all over the world". Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |