Subject: Is Limited Atonement Bibical? |
Bible Note: Greetings John! Thanks for the input! Does the word "many" exclude any? Consider Rom. 5:15! Did "all" die as a result of Adam's sin or did just some? How about Rom. 5:19? Were "all" made sinners or just some? My point is simple. There are plenty of Scriptures where 'many' obviously means 'all'. It seems to be a term of expansion, not limitation. We have plenty of verses which say that Christ died for all, everyone, the world. Is there one verse which specifically says that Christ didn't die for some? To apply this to Mt. 28:26, we would have to assume that "many" means "not all". Even though, it though it is used in Romans to indicate all. Just some thoughts! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |