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NASB | 1 Corinthians 8:5 For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 8:5 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords, |
Subject: One God, One Jesus Christ |
Bible Note: Tim, I never said nor implied that if simply the Greek definite article were lacking before theos then it should be translated "a god". If it were only that simple! No, I am saying that the renderings of the Greek scholars of the Bible versions I listed agree with the grammatical construction of John 1:1 where we find two occurrences of the Greek noun theos. The first occurance refers to almighty God, with whom the Word was—“and the Word logos was with God (a form of theos).” Remember that we cannot take words out of context! This first theos is preceded by a form of the Greek definite article ho. The noun theos with the definite article ho in front of it points to a distinct identity, in this case almighty God—“and the Word was with (the) God.” But in the latter part of John 1:1, such translations that I listed, render the second theos (a predicate noun) as “divine” or “a god” instead of “God” because the second theos is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb "and" without the definite article ho. In this verse, such a sentence construction points to a characteristic or quality of the subject. It highlights the nature of the Word, that he was “divine,” “a god,” but not the almighty God. This is in harmony with the many scriptures that show that “the Word” was God’s spokesman, sent to earth by God, and again context taken into consideration. Just as the John 1:18 verse states: “No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god [the Son created in heaven by almighty God] who is in the bosom position with the Father is the one that has [come to earth as the man Jesus and] explained him [almighty God].” There are many other Bible verses where those who translate from the Greek into another language insert the article “a” before the predicate noun although there is no article in the Greek text. This insertion of the article in the translation brings out the characteristic or quality of the noun. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says, “they supposed it had been a spirit” (phantasma). The New World Translation more correctly renders the phrase, “They thought: ‘It is an apparition!’” In the same way, the correct translation of John 1:1 shows that the Word was not “God,” but “a god.” Two similar examples are found at John chapter 8, verse 44. There Jesus, speaking of the Devil, says: “That one was a manslayer when he began . . . He is a liar and the father of the lie.” Similar to John 1:1, in the original Greek the predicate noun in both these expressions (“manslayer,” “liar”) precedes the verb and and note I said "and" has no definite article. In each case, a quality or characteristic of the Devil is being described and in many modern language translations, it is necessary to insert the indefinite article (“a”) in order to convey this. Thus, the King James Version renders these expressions, “He was a murderer . . . he is a liar and the father of it.” Other examples can be seen at Mark 11:32; John 4:19; 6:70; 9:17; 10:1, 13, 21; 12:6. Tara |