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NASB | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 16:28 ¶ "I assure you and most solemnly say to you, there are some of those standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." |
Subject: Why 70 A.D. and why predictions |
Bible Note: Hello again stj, Before I respond to your points, I'd like to note a couple things. First, this is the first time I've participated in a forum like this and I'm most impressed with the civility and respect shown by all those posting on this page. The thinking process and research involved in asking/answering questions is most educational. Specifically stj, your points cause me to revisit these verses again and I see things that I hadn't before. Gen. 8:21; And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more every thing living, as I have done." What I see here now is that the LORD spoke this to no person but "said in His heart," but here we see it in black and white, apparrently divinely conveyed without anyone hearing it. Just an interesting sidelight. Now in chapter 9 God is speaking not to His own heart but to Noah, to whom the flood was a very personal and undoubtably stressfull event and He gave him multiple assurances that he nor anyone else would endure that again. When I first saw this I also thought this was an elaboration of promise in the previous chapter that ruled out another flood but not other means of destruction. That is why I searched to see if there was any confirmation of the seemingly all inclusive promise of 8:21. That brings me back to Psalm 104:5 where you point out something I had glossed over, namely the word foundations. "Who laid the foundations of the earth, that it should not be removed for ever." Thinking this over I think this indeed refers to a literal foundation - namely the Divinely created forces of the universe that hold the earth and everything else in place. Now the question is what does the word "it" refer to, foundations or earth? I choose earth. Let me guess - you choose foundations, right? Since there's nothing in this chapter to verify which, I move on to the other verse I cited which you did not address: Ecc. 1:4; "1 The words of the Preacher, the son of David, king in Jerusalem. 2 Vanity of vanities, saith the Preacher, vanity of vanities; all is vanity. 3 What profit hath a man of all his labour which he taketh under the sun? 4 One generation passeth away, and another generation cometh: but the earth abideth for ever." I can only see this much plainer statement as confirmation of the promise of Gen. 8:21. In all fairness I must admit there are places where "for ever" is used symbolically for a long period of time instead of perpetual existence. Indeed, Strong's definition allows for this. At any rate, our differing views on the nature and timing of Jesus' return likely preclude any agreement on this. Regarding 2 Peter 3:13 and Matt. 24:35, my point was that if annialation of heaven and earth was not to be part of God's Judgement - as I beleive - then taking them as literal would result in a contradiction. Most that beleive the 2nd coming to be future obviously take "passing of heaven and earth" in the literal sense. I used the excerpts from David Curtis to illustrate how so much of OT language is symbolic. You seem to agree when you say, " I would say all the prophetic writers used a great deal more figurative or metaphoric language than any of the other writhers of Scripture." Rereading my previous post, I failed to make my main point. That is, how is it that such language in the OT is recognized as symbolic, but in the NT similar language must be literal? I apologize if I sounded flippant. Let me repost the question rephrasing the last sentence. One final point stj, do you beleive you are subject to the law of the old covenant or the new? If your answer is the new then consider Matt. 5:: 17 "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." This says to me that the law (old covenant) could not pass until heaven and earth passed and all be fulfilled. If taken literally then we are apparrently still subject to the old covenant. But, I dare say every Christian considers themselves to be under the new covenant. For this to be true, "heaven and earth" must be taken symbolically, and the passing of them must be a past event. Your thoughts? Tom |