Subject: The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 |
Bible Note: Jesusman, I need to ask this... If the angels left their domain...what domain and where did they go? And why are they being seen in what your context says is the reference of the surrounding cities to S/G's immorality? In other words, why are the angels being used in relation to the verse itself? If the implication is of sexual immorality and that the cities around and S/G did do these hideous things. WHY bring angels into the text? Would this not convolute the text, if the text was speaking of the immorality of men? According to Vines on Jude 6,7...the definitions I have stated in other posts (to you and others) defines the angels leaving thier supernatural state and also their home. Which is why they were cast to Tartarus. Unless Vines in wrong...how can we conclude anything else? OR, If the Vines is correct, then these angels did in fact leave their supernatural place of ownership(heavenly body), and did in fact, leave their home (heaven) ... I cannot read anything else into what the Vines defined. If they left their heavenly body and left their heavenly home... is this the ONLY reason the Lord cast them to tartarus? Or is the inference in Jude emphatic on the text that...these angels did in fact leave heaven, their supernatural body and did have relations with the women??? The "strange flesh" as it were? I must admit, this verses are compelling in theory and the usage of our language in the translations make it difficult to truly understand. BUT I cannot believe that all the verses we have been over and over were tragically misquoted or misinterpted by these scholars that give us the same translation. Why is it only these verses that substantiate the positions I hold (and others) are incorrectly translated?? Very confusing indeed... *shalom* the Disciple |