Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 35263 | ||
Dear Tim, I finaly have time to address the Scripture proofs you use as an arguement against Limited Atonement. I now have a clearer understanding of the doctrine than before so, thanks to you and my other brethren. 1) John 1:29 - "The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!". John could not mean by the term "world" everyone, for then everyone would be saved by the virtue of the the fact, that Christ took away sin by bearing it in His own body on the tree. Knowing that there are people who will be damned in the end, I can only conclude that John's use of "world" in this verse,must refer to a particular group of people, namely the Elect, who through grace recieve the gift of faith. "Eph 2:8,9 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast". John 3:16-17 - "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him". If we deduce from John that God sent His Son to save the entire world, but not all responded, leads inexorably to the conclusion that Jesus had failed in the work which The Father had sent Him to perform. Now, none of us believe that Christ is capable of failure. We believe His work was perfect. Was His mission to save the world or to save His People? John 5:36 "But the testimony which I have is greater than the testimony of John; for the works which the Father has given Me to accomplish--the very works that I do--testify about Me, that the Father has sent Me",and John 10:37 "If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me". Jesus Claims to have accomplished all that the Father sent Him to do! It is plain that John 3:16,17 is the closest thing to a mission statement thay we have. Nowhere is it implied that God sent His only begotten Son to make people salvable, on the contrary, Jesus saves. Matt 1:21 "She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins". Notice the verb is "will save", not try to save, not offer to save, not attempt to woo. It clearly states Christ's intention to save HIS PEOPLE! Who are His people if not those who are called? 8:29 "For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren" and Rom 8:30 "and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified". It seems to me that God is the initiator and the finisher of our salvation. Can it be possible that God Almighty lacks the power to bring a sinner to salvation? Can the fallen will of a man triumph over his Creator? No, No, No. Ps 18:46 "The LORD lives, and blessed be my rock; And exalted be the God of my salvation,". Eph 1:4 " just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love". He chose us! Before we were born. Eph 1:5 " He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will". Thats according to the kind intention of HIS will, not man's will. To God be the Glory! I believe I have begun to lay down a Scriptual foundation for Limited Atonement. For those who who are interested in a scholarly work, let me know, I would gladly provide you with the resouces I have leaned on. I'll continue on my next post. God Bless Tim, John |
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2 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | Hank | 35287 | ||
John Reformed: As for me, I've always felt more comfortable to accept the plain statements of John 1:29 and 3:16 -- that he meant "world" and "whoever" respectively. I am simple enough to believe that had he meant "elect" he would have said "elect." He doesn't need me to tell him what he meant. --Hank | ||||||
3 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | John Reformed | 35318 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for taking the time to read my post! I hope you will choose to participate more fully. Hank, I too believe in the perspicuity of Scripture. I believe that God intended it for the unlearned as well as the learned. However, and I'm certain that you would agree that, not all of Scripture is easy to understand. At least not for me. But thanks be to God, He has provided for our weaknesses by sending the Holy Spirit to help in our infirmities and we can call upon Him to lead us in our search for the knowledge of God and of His Son, Our Lord Jesus Christ. He has also, in His providence, "given some to be teachers" and I often have found occasion to praise Him for that as well. I am also of the belief, that ultimate authority regarding the interpretation of Scripture is Scripture itself. Any degree of authority that a man may possess is limited to the degree that it is in harmony with what God has said in His Word. We are all aware of the damage that can occur when a verse is taken out of context. I am sorry to say, but I have been guilty of this myself. It is a problem that all of us need to be mindful of. I believe this happens when we force a portion of Scripture to support our own desired interpretation or that of our particular tradition. I hear it all the time from unbelievers " You Christians can't even agree among yourselves what it is the Bible teaches". I usually explain that it is not the Bible that errs but that it is the fault of His imperfect servants. I have profited much thru the ministry of The Westminster Confession of Faith. One of it's precepts is: "All things in Scripture are not alike plain in themselves, nor alike clear unto all; yet those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed, for salvation, are so clearly propounded and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them".(Chapt. 1) Of further assistance, from the same Chapter: "The infallible rule of interpretation of Scripture, is the Scripture itself; and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full sense of any scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it may be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly". That is what, by God's grace, the guideline I will be following. God Bless Hank, John |
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