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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | BradK | 130265 | ||
Tim, Good job of portraying the inconsistency of the JW in regards to their own "translation". Aside from the errant theology (and non-scholarship) of the New World Perversion (let's call it what it is), they apparently don't even bother with being consistent. One of my good brothers noted some years ago in countering them that they don't even believe their translation- the NWT! Thanks for your solid input and well-seasoned scholarship of the Greek grammar. You certainly have demonstarted that you have much more substance to offer the the "suedo-scholars" of the NWT:-) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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2 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Tara022 | 130275 | ||
Hello BradK, May I ask you a question? What explaination have you to the Greek scholars' translation of John 1:1 of the list I provided? Mine is only the beginning of present day scholars' poofs of their unbiased accuracy. Surely they had their reasons since their translation was unpopular. Have you not recognized the inconsistancy of translation of Acts 28:6 with that of John 1:1? You mention inconsistancies found in the NWT. Could you list some for me? Also, could you please show me where I am in error in the posts I just made? I believe I just let the Scriptures speak for themselves. Let's not add nor take away, which is "good" don't you agree? Thanks. Tara |
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3 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130278 | ||
Greetings Tara! May I take a stab at your questions? 1) First of all, Acts 28:6 is not the same grammatical construction as John 1:1! There are two differences. Acts 28:6 is not an example of a predicate nominative. Secondly, Acts 28:6 is not a statement of fact, but of opinion. The people thought Paul was one of many of the false gods in which they believed. Acts 28:6 is not a statement that Paul was in fact God. John 1:1 is a statement of fact, not opinion. 2) Secondly, the 'scholars' you list are not well known scholars. I have been studying Greek for many years now and I have not heard of any of them. I can also quote you many well known scholars who say that the Greek of John 1:1 clearly identifies Jesus as being fully God, not 'a god'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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