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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Tara022 | 130275 | ||
Hello BradK, May I ask you a question? What explaination have you to the Greek scholars' translation of John 1:1 of the list I provided? Mine is only the beginning of present day scholars' poofs of their unbiased accuracy. Surely they had their reasons since their translation was unpopular. Have you not recognized the inconsistancy of translation of Acts 28:6 with that of John 1:1? You mention inconsistancies found in the NWT. Could you list some for me? Also, could you please show me where I am in error in the posts I just made? I believe I just let the Scriptures speak for themselves. Let's not add nor take away, which is "good" don't you agree? Thanks. Tara |
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2 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | BradK | 130285 | ||
Tara, Let my final response to you be three-fold: 1. I believe Tim has pointed out the "inconsistencies" of the NWT in regard to the use of the definite article; 2. I too would like to know how John 1:1 can be made to translate as "a god" as this then is clearly POLYTHEISTIC! If as you've stated (among others) that there is only ONE God, how can the NWT of John 1:1 be consistent (and correct)? 3. The overiding neglected point of order is that you have come back on the Forum by deceit and again are in blatant violation of the Posting Guidelines and Terms of Use! How do you interpret that? Speaking the Truth in Love BradK |
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3 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Tara022 | 130287 | ||
Hello BradK, You seem upset? Sorry if I upset you. You ask me some important questions. The first point though. 1). Concerning the definite article was responded to and if you read it you'll see how Tim was in error. This is simple translation, nothing hard about it so long as we stay unbiased. Point 2) I take it you believe in the Trinity doctrine. That's fine. But then you say “it would be polytheism" to translate John 1:1 as many do, “a god” or "divine". Let me show you how ridiculous that is, nothing personal but nonetheless ridiculous. I believe the Bible clearly denies the trinity. This Trinity means a triune or three-in-one God. Correct? That means a God in three Persons, namely, “God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost.” Since this is said to be, not three Gods, but merely “one God in three Persons,” then the term God must mean the Trinity; and the Trinity and God must be interchangeable terms. On this basis let us quote John 1:1, 2 and use the equivalent term for God, and let us see how it reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Trinity, and the Word was the Trinity. The same was in the beginning with the Trinity.” But how could such a thing be? If the Word was himself a Person and he was with the Trinity, then there would be four Persons. But the Word is said by the trinitarians to be the Second Person of the Trinity, namely, “God the Son.” But even then, how could John say that the Word, as God the Son, was the Trinity made up of three Persons? How could one Person be three? However, let the trinitarians say that in John 1:1 God means just the First Person of the Trinity, namely, “God the Father,” and so the Word was with God the Father in the beginning. On the basis of this definition of God, how could it be said that the Word, who they say is “God the Son,” is “God the Father”? And where does their “God the Holy Ghost” enter into the picture? If God is a Trinity, was not the Word with “God the Holy Ghost” as well as with “God the Father” in the beginning? Suppose, now, they say that, in John 1:1, 2, God means the other two Persons of the Trinity, so that in the beginning the Word was with God the Father and God the Holy Ghost. In this case we come to this difficulty, namely, that, by being God, the Word was God the Father and God the Holy Ghost, the other two Persons of the Trinity. Thus the Word, or “God the Son,” the Second Person of the Trinity, is said to be also the First Person and the Third Person of the Trinity. It does not solve the difficulty to say that the Word was the same as God the Father and was equal to God the Father but still was not God the Father. If this were so, it must follow that the Word was the same as God the Holy Ghost and was equal to God the Holy Ghost but still was not God the Holy Ghost. And yet the trinitarians teach that the God of John 1:1, 2 is only one God, not three Gods! So is the Word only one-third of God? Since we cannot scientifically calculate that 1 God (the Father) plus 1 God (the Son) plus 1 God (the Holy Ghost) equals 1 God, then we must calculate that 1/3 God (the Father) plus 1/3 God (the Son) plus 1/3 God (the Holy Ghost) equals 3/3 God, or 1 God. Furthermore, we would have to conclude that the term “God” in John 1:1, 2 changes its personality, or that “God” changes his personality in one sentence. Does he? Any trying to reason out the Trinity teaching leads to confusion of mind. So the Trinity teaching confuses the meaning of John 1:1, 2; it does not simplify it or make it clear or easily understandable. Certainly the matter was not confused in the mind of the apostle John when he wrote those words in the common Greek of nineteen centuries ago for international Christian readers. As John opened up his life account of Jesus Christ he was in no confusion of mind as to who the Word or Logos was and as to who God was. |
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4 | Jesus in the beginning | 1 Cor 8:5 | Noveta | 130292 | ||
Tara, I am a little confused.. Why are you adding words. The bible doesn't say “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Trinity, and the Word was the Trinity. The same was in the beginning with the Trinity.” In context John 1:1,2 is explaining who Jesus is .. 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. There are other scriptures that point out the Father is God and the Holy Spirit is God. The word trinity is not in the bible.. It is a word that has a meaning and is a coalition of many scriptures found in the bible. We are finite, God is infinite.. why are you trying to calculate what the Bible is simply telling you.. What is the difference between the beginning in Genesis 1 and John 1 Genesis 1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. I was neglecting responding to you because you read a different Bible, which gives a different meaning, but I need to ask this question. |
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5 | Jesus in the beginning | 1 Cor 8:5 | ROGER459 | 130328 | ||
TRINITY is not in the Bible, but it is a term used to describe the Nature of the One God, to manifest or revael Himself in 3 distinct persons. There is also a Satanic Trinity, Revelation 20:10, the Devil, the Beast and the False Prophet. QUESTION: "Why would Satan, Counterfiet something that did not Exsist?" Perhaps you can see the Essence of God in these three verses. John 2:19-22 JESUS RAISED HIS BODY! Romans 8:11 THE SPIRIT RAISED JESUS! Acts 2:32 GOD RAISED JESUS! Now who raised Jesus? The one God, Who manifests Himself or reveals to us, Himself. How? (1Sauel 3:21) And the LORD appeared again in Shiloh: for the LORD revealed himself to Samuel in Shiloh by the Word of the LORD. HOW DOES THE LORD REVEAL HIMSELF TO US? By the Word of the Lord -the Bible! Thank you! |
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