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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | Morant61 | 77282 | ||
Greetings Dan! I know the feeling my friend! I have three at home, plus a grandbaby! :-) Let me comment on two of your statements: 1) You wrote: "The reason I have to write one more time on this is because that's not exactly what it says. Here is something a little closer: "Be baptized (singular) YE (plural) for the forgiveness of your (YE) (plural) sins!" Take a look at the Greek and you'll see. The pronoun "YE/humon" is twice in that sentence: once following 'be baptized' and once following 'sins.' " You are correct that the pronoun 'of you' (plural) is used twice, but the first occurance is preceded by 'each' (singular) - which matches the singular of the imperative to 'be baptized'. So, this doesn't really impact what I have been saying. If Peter had meant what you are saying, he simply would have had to use the plural command to 'be baptized'. But, he didn't for a reason! :-) 2) You wrote: "The plural and singular can easily be shown if the Greek supports it. The reason the translators don't bother is because those being commanded to repent are the same ones being commanded to be baptized (YE and YE)." How exactly can one 'easily' show the difference? How about Luke 22:31? Reading only the English translations, is 'you' singular or plural? The KJV made distinctions, but modern translations don't because we don't have a 2nd person singular and a 2nd person plural pronoun. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | disciplerami | 77286 | ||
You have a grandbaby? Me too. You wrote: "If Peter had meant what you are saying, he simply would have had to use the plural command to 'be baptized'. But, he didn't for a reason! :-)" I don't believe that is right, the singular "each one" is follow by the genetive OF YE. You are right, the Greek "be baptized" could have a plural form, but it is not ungrammatical to do it this way: the manner in which we have received gives emphasis to the individual, but still applies to the "Ya'll" plural. Lk 22:31 the word transalted 'you' is the accusative plural, humas, so Satan must have requested permission to sift two or more of the disciples like wheat. The same word is used in vese 35, and all of the disciples understood it so and so it is translated, "you (Ye) did not lack anything, did you? And they said, 'No..." The English is clear enough when it shows that all responded. Again, the Greek plural is often depicted in the King James as 'Ye.' I wish we had that in our modern English. |
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