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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | Morant61 | 77213 | ||
Greetings Dan! Let me touch upon each of your points! 1) This point really isn't valid, since I have made the case several times that there isn't any way to express the difference between a 2nd person singular and a 2nd person plural in English. The KJV used to use You and Ye, but we have no way in modern English to express this difference. But, to interpret this verse in the manner you propose would be like taking the following sentence: "If he buys a new car, she will be mad, he will have a large monthly bill." Did 'she' buy a car? No! The different pronoun seperates that clause from the rest of the sentence. Acts 2:38 does the same thing in the Greek grammar. I know I have posted this quote several times, but here is what Dr. A. T. Robertson said about this verse: "Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve." Source (Word Pictures) 2) 'Kai' serves in many more ways than simply a cordinating conjunction. It can be translated as 'even', 'but', 'also', ect.... So, the fact that 'kai' is used at the beginning of the clause does not mean that the change in number should be ignored. 3) If the command to 'be baptized' were plural in number, you would be absolutely correct. However, it isn't! :-) 4) My friend, this point was very disingenuous. I have posted many times on this verse, and I have consistently stated that the singular command to 'be baptized' cannot be grammatically connected to the rest of the plural sentence. This final option was thrown in as one of several possibilities. I personally do not hold to it, nor did I claim to do so. This whole topic illustrates how people get set in their beliefs and refuse to budge. The issue I have raised with Acts 2:38 is simple grammar, yet I can't even get you to acknowledge it because it doesn't agree with your interpretation. If we can't even agree on simple grammar, which has rules, how can we possibly agree on other issues? :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | disciplerami | 77268 | ||
Dear Tim Moran, The translation is quite clear the way it is. The way that you propose it should be is translated is no where to be found. It's not just a matter of the difference between 'you', singular or plural, it's a matter of cutting and splicing the entire passage in ways that no one else attempts. The Greek doesn't say, "Repent BECAUSE of the remission of sins, AND be baptized afterward..." Simple grammar is what I hope is visible in the NASB translation. Why do you claim that it is 'simple grammar' that supports your position, yet no translation board, no Greek text has the verse parsed or translated accordingly? I say, if anyone is unwilling to budge it is you. Show me the verse, show me the variant reading, give me evidence. A.T. Robertson's remark does not help your case. He says that the English translation does not preserve the thought. How so? My NASB says, 'Peter said to THEM, Repent (I think that implies he is still talking to the audience YE,THEM) and let EACH ONE (sounds like individual emphasis, reflecting the singular verb 'be baptized') OF YE (humon, plural pronoun, so the 3rd singular verb with the plural pronoun makes the command match in number to the command to 'repent') Following the second verb, for 'be baptized' is the plural pronoun YE which matches the YE connected to forgiveness of sins. Also, your example sentence doesn't work. It doesn't make sense, but Acts 2:38 does. The conditional "if" of your sample sentence goes against your entire argument that the blessing doesn't follow. Or are you now admitting, by offering this sample sentence, that 'forgiveness of sins' is conditional to repentance and baptism? You have me confused. To fit, it would have to include two imperative commands with a result following the second. To my children: "graduate (Ye) high school, and attend college (each individual of YE) out of respect to me with a view to receiving (YE)a degree, and your tuition will be paid in full." -- Rules of Dad 2:38 Have a good day. Disciplerami |
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3 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | Morant61 | 77272 | ||
Greetings Dan! I did show you the verse. There is no varient reading. The issue involved is simple grammar, not intepretation. I'm sorry my example wasn't to your liking! :-) It was the best I could do on short notice. I know you won't buy it, but allow me to close this discussion with one more attempt to explain why the Greek grammar cannot mean what you are saying it means. Greek pronouns and verbs must match in both person and number. While it sounds nice to say that Peter is simply going from the group to the individual, doing so seperates the command to 'be baptized' from the promise of 'forgiveness of sins'. One cannot say in Greek, "Be baptized (singular) for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins!" Ignore the rest of the sentence for the moment. The above sentence in Greek would be impossible. The only imperative that can go with the promise of forgiveness of sins in the plural 'repent'. The reason I can't appeal to a translation is simple - there is no way in English to express this distinction!!! :-) But, it's not my fault that we do not have a 2nd person singular and a 2nd person plural pronoun. ;-) Well, as always, at least the information is there on the forum for others to read. So, the readers themselves will have to decide if my point is valid or not. p.s. - Can I get a copy of your 'Rules of Dad'? They sound like they would come in handy! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | disciplerami | 77280 | ||
Hi Tim, I'm not really writing any books because I've still three at home and every day is an adventure, if you know what I mean? Tim, you write, "One cannot say in Greek, 'Be baptized (singular) for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins!'" The reason I have to write one more time on this is because that's not exactly what it says. Here is something a little closer: "Be baptized (singular) YE (plural) for the forgiveness of your (YE) (plural) sins!" Take a look at the Greek and you'll see. The pronoun "YE/humon" is twice in that sentence: once following 'be baptized' and once following 'sins.' The distinction between 'you' and 'ye' was shown pretty well in our Olde English Bibles, but the new translations don't do it. 'Ye' was the word used for showing the plural of 'you.' I wouldn't mind a Texas version, showing 'you' for singular and 'ya'll' for plural. But you make the statement: "The reason I can't appeal to a translation is simple - there is no way in English to express this distinction!!! :-)" The plural and singular can easily be shown if the Greek supports it. The reason the translators don't bother is because those being commanded to repent are the same ones being commanded to be baptized (YE and YE). I don't see the problem. Thanks for taking the time. Disciplerami |
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5 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | Morant61 | 77282 | ||
Greetings Dan! I know the feeling my friend! I have three at home, plus a grandbaby! :-) Let me comment on two of your statements: 1) You wrote: "The reason I have to write one more time on this is because that's not exactly what it says. Here is something a little closer: "Be baptized (singular) YE (plural) for the forgiveness of your (YE) (plural) sins!" Take a look at the Greek and you'll see. The pronoun "YE/humon" is twice in that sentence: once following 'be baptized' and once following 'sins.' " You are correct that the pronoun 'of you' (plural) is used twice, but the first occurance is preceded by 'each' (singular) - which matches the singular of the imperative to 'be baptized'. So, this doesn't really impact what I have been saying. If Peter had meant what you are saying, he simply would have had to use the plural command to 'be baptized'. But, he didn't for a reason! :-) 2) You wrote: "The plural and singular can easily be shown if the Greek supports it. The reason the translators don't bother is because those being commanded to repent are the same ones being commanded to be baptized (YE and YE)." How exactly can one 'easily' show the difference? How about Luke 22:31? Reading only the English translations, is 'you' singular or plural? The KJV made distinctions, but modern translations don't because we don't have a 2nd person singular and a 2nd person plural pronoun. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6 | How do we remit | Matt 7:13 | disciplerami | 77286 | ||
You have a grandbaby? Me too. You wrote: "If Peter had meant what you are saying, he simply would have had to use the plural command to 'be baptized'. But, he didn't for a reason! :-)" I don't believe that is right, the singular "each one" is follow by the genetive OF YE. You are right, the Greek "be baptized" could have a plural form, but it is not ungrammatical to do it this way: the manner in which we have received gives emphasis to the individual, but still applies to the "Ya'll" plural. Lk 22:31 the word transalted 'you' is the accusative plural, humas, so Satan must have requested permission to sift two or more of the disciples like wheat. The same word is used in vese 35, and all of the disciples understood it so and so it is translated, "you (Ye) did not lack anything, did you? And they said, 'No..." The English is clear enough when it shows that all responded. Again, the Greek plural is often depicted in the King James as 'Ye.' I wish we had that in our modern English. |
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