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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | Makarios | 9047 | ||
Hello again Ezekiel! In Matthew 28:19, we see Jesus commanding His disciples to "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," after stating that "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth." After this, He goes even further to say, "teaching them to observe all that I commanded you;"... Here we see "baptizing them in the 'name'".. Now, just who's name is this? Are we only to baptize "in the name of Jesus" (Acts 2:38) and not in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit? No. This idea is based on a misinterpretation of Acts 2:38. It is important to understand that the phrase 'in the name of' in biblical times carried the meaning "by the authority of." Seen in this light, the phrase in Acts 2:38 cannot be interpreted to be some kind of a magic baptismal formula. This verse simply indicates that people are to be baptized according to the authority of Jesus Christ. The verse does not mean that the words "in the name of Jesus" must be liturgically pronounced over each person being baptized. If we were consistent in using the strict "baptism only in the name of Jesus" logic, we'd have to pronounce the words "in the name of Jesus" over everything we did. For, indeed, Colossians 3:17 instructs us, "Whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks through Him to God the Father". Clearly the words "in the name of Jesus" are not intended as a formula. I believe that a baptism "in the name of Jesus" makes good sense in the context of Acts 2, because the Jews ("men of Judea" [verse 14], "men of Israel" [verse 22]), to whom Peter was preaching, had rejected Christ as the Messiah. It is logical that Peter would call on them to repent of their rejection of Jesus the Messiah and become publicly identified with Him via baptism. Hope this helps, Ezekiel. Your brother in Christ, Nolan |
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2 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | ezekiel | 9108 | ||
Nine Reasons for Jesus Name Matthew 28:19 Below are 9 reasons why Matt:28:19 refers to the name of Jesus in Baptism. 1. Its grammar designates one name ( singular) 2. Its context shows that Jesus described His power and therefore told the disciples to baptize in His name. 3.Mark's and luke's descriptions of the same instructions of Christ show that Jesus was the only name mentioned. 4.The Early Church, including Matthew, carried out Christ's instructions by baptizing in the name of Jesus (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; 22:16; ICorinthians 1:13). 5. The Name of the Father is Jesus; the Father is revealed through the name Jesus (John 5:43). 6. The name of the Son is Jesus (Matthew 1:21). 7. The name of the Holy Ghost is Jesus; the Holy Ghost is revealed through the name Jesus (John 14:26). 8. The Bible does not teach the doctrine of the trinity, so there is no theological justifaction for a trine formula. 9. God revealed himself in the New Testament by one name. Zecariah14:9 and that name is Jesus Revelation 22:3,4. Jesus Christ is the Fullness of the Godhead bodily. Father in Creation,Son in Redemption,Holy Ghost in Regeneration. Ezekiel |
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3 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | Makarios | 9114 | ||
Ezekiel's nine reasons.. 1. True 2. This verse taken in context shows the authority of Jesus and how He delegates this authority to the disciples so that they can baptize in His Name. 3. Mark's description does not assign any reference to "in the name of Jesus"; it only mentions baptism (Mark 16:15-16). Luke 24:47 simply says "His Name" which could refer to the authority given by the Trinity as a whole, not only Jesus. 4. True for "The Early Church"; Ezekiel, show us your Scripture reference for "including Matthew".. 5. No, this verse does not say that the Name of the Father is "Jesus". The Father is not revealed through the name 'Jesus', and this is a misinterpretation on your part, Ezekiel. John 5:43 states that Christ has come as THE representative of the Father. Therefore, the Father is revealed through Him, not through the name 'Jesus'. This is the beginning of your "Oneness" heresy.. 6. True 7. Wrong again. The Holy Spirit is sent "in Jesus' name". This does NOT mean that the name of the Holy Spirit is Jesus or that the Holy Spirit is revealed through the name of Jesus. This is another gross misinterpretation on your part, Ezekiel. Just as in John 5:43, the Holy Spirit is sent as THE representative of the Father and the Son, Jesus Christ, and He is sent by the authority of the Father and is given authority on earth (see Matt. 28:19). Therefore, all authority comes from the Father and is given to the Son and the Holy Spirit- even while the Son and Holy Spirit share in this authority being in every way fully God themselves. This misinterpretation further leads down your "Oneness" heresy path.. 8. Yes, the Bible sure does teach the Doctrine of the Trinity! There is theological justification for the Trinity and it is supported through Scripture, even though Scripture does not specifically mention the word "Trinity". There is no theological justification for a "Oneness" formula, which is heresy and contrary to the Bible. 9. God revealed Himself in the New Testament through Jesus Christ and through the Holy Spirit! God did not use a 'name' to reveal Himself, He used His only Son! And when His Son was taken up into glory, then He revealed Himself and His Son through the Holy Spirit! You are once again using the 'name' as a formula here, and by doing so you are limiting God! God was and will never be limited by a 'name', no matter what "Oneness" heresy you try to preach, Ezekiel. "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," Col. 2:9- the 'fullness of Deity' is NOT saying that the Father is Jesus is the Holy Spirit. This verse is saying that Deity (the divine attributes and nature) dwelt in His earthly body in its fullness, which is a strong statement of the Deity and humanity of Jesus Christ. By saying that 'the Father is Jesus is the Holy Spirit' after reading this verse, you are again grossly misinterpreting this verse to the point of being contrary to Scripture itself. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were all present in Creation; the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are present in Redemption; and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all take a part in Regeneration. Thank you Ezekiel for giving me a chance to REFUTE your heretical Oneness beliefs yet again. Nolan |
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4 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | ezekiel | 9126 | ||
Good Morning Noland: My friend this isn't the DARK AGES we need not be throwing words around like Heretic and yes I will give you More reasons for My Oneness Views. I may not agree with your total view point, I enjoy the interaction,but I WILL NOT CUT ANYONE DOWN. I will post more later I've got to go. Blessings Ezekiel |
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5 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | Makarios | 9132 | ||
Good Morning Ezekiel: No, this isn't the DARK AGES, but one should not be so "medieval" in thought so as to be quick to embrace your "Oneness Views" which are contrary to Scripture. I have so much information that I can combat you with!! I also have much information to support the Trinity. You will fail miserably if you try to convince me of "Oneness", my friend. I am not cutting YOU down! But I most ASSUREDLY am cutting "Oneness" down! And I will cut it off at the very roots if I can! I have several resources here to combat Oneness, and I am ready to go to war with you. That is, if you really want to 'go to war' on this issue on the Study Bible Forum. Note: Please notice the way that you keep misspelling my name "Noland".. I have tried not to misspell your name Ezekiel. Thanks. Blessings, Nolan! |
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6 | Why? | Matt 7:13 | Makarios | 9133 | ||
Here is The Nelson NKJV Study Bible on the Trinity: "THE TRINITY IN THE BIBLE Historical Development of the Doctrine of the Trinity The term trinity is not found in the Bible but is a theological word which expresses the clear teaching of Holy Scripture, especially the New Testament. The first theologian of the church to use the term was Theophilus who spoke of God as trias. The great Latin church father Tertullian first developed the concept of trinitas, one God in three persons. Though the fathers of the church in the second and third centuries spoke of the three persons of the Godhead while recognizing that there is but one God, the councils of Nicea (A.D. 325) and Constantinople (A.D. 381) gave the fullest expression to the Biblical doctrine. The Bible Explicitly Teaches That There is Only One God THE TEACHING OF THE OLD TESTAMENT Belief in one God in the ancient Mediterranean world was unique to the nation of Israel. The faith of Israel is given in the famous Shema: “Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one” (Deut. 6:4). Repeatedly the teaching of the Law and the pronouncements of God’s prophets confirm this absolute truth. THE TEACHING OF THE NEW TESTAMENT The church continued the teaching of the Hebrew Scriptures, as well as the teaching of the Lord Jesus Christ, that there is only one God (see 1 Cor. 8:6; Eph. 4:6; 1 Tim. 2:5). This it did in contrast to the rampant polytheism that permeated the Greco-Roman world with its multitude of gods, including worship of the emperor as a god during the latter half of the first century. As the apostles and later the church began to articulate this monotheism against pagan religion, it was necessary to explain how this belief in one God was consistent with the concurrent belief that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are each God and yet still only one God. Scripture Teaches That Three Persons Are One God GLIMPSES OF THE TRINITY IN THE OLD TESTAMENT Use of the Word Elohim with Singular Verbs The usual word for God in the Hebrew is Elohim. This noun is in the plural, whereas in several places the term for God is a singular, such as El or Eloah. In spite of the plural term for God, the true Jewish faith was strongly monotheistic. When Elohim is used regarding the God of Israel, it is used with singular verbs, indicating that the God of Israel is a single being. The plural allows for a plurality of expression for God, as later revealed in the New Testament, but Hebrew grammar may also simply be using a plural of plenitude. Use of Plural Personal Pronouns On three occasions the Old Testament uses plural personal pronouns when speaking of God. The first occurrence refers to the creation of humanity: “Let Us make man in Our image” (Gen. 1:26). The second pertains to God deciding to confuse human languages at the tower of Babel: "Let Us go down" (Gen. 11:6–9). The last reference is to the call to mission: “Who will go for Us?” (Isa. 6:1–8). The Angel of the Lord Several times in the Hebrew Scriptures, reference is made to "the Angel of the LORD" (Yahweh). It is evident from the contexts that these references do not speak simply of a created messenger of God but of God Himself. In certain contexts the Angel of the LORD is identified as God Himself (Gen. 16:7–13; 18:1–22), but in others He is distinguished from God (Gen. 19:1–28, especially v. 24; Zech. 1:12, 13; see also Mal. 3:1). Such appearances most likely are of the preincarnate Christ, who is the revelation of the Father (John 1:18; Heb. 1:1–3). After the incarnation such appearances of the Angel of the LORD end, for now the revelation of God is present as a human in the person of Jesus Christ (compare Ex. 14:19 with Ex. 23:20; 1 Cor. 10:4)." (part 1 of 2) Blessings! Nolan |
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