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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Searcher56 | 184024 | ||
... Do you mean to tell me that just because a Jew didn't hear about Jesus Christ, they were under the old covenant? I as I read the context Hebrews 9:15, it was the fact He died, there was a new covenant ... it wasn't based on one hearing about it. ... | ||||||
2 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Coper44 | 184065 | ||
Searcher56, I did not say that a Jew not hearing about Christ meant they were under the old covenant. Again, according to Heb. 8:13, the new convenant was in effect but the old had not yet disappeared (That means it was still in effect). Do you agree that the temple, priesthood and sacrifices were still active? This wasn't the case simply because the Jews hadn't "heard" the gospel. Heb. 8:4 If he were on earth, he would not be a priest, for there are already men who offer the gifts prescribed by the law. 5 They serve at a sanctuary that is a copy and shadow of what is in heaven. This verse is in the present tense ("there are already men" and "They serve at a sanctuary"). The priests "offer the gifts prescribed by the law" indicates the continuance of the old covenant system. Remember the Jews were blinded by God except for the remnant until the time of the gentiles was complete (which I believe was approx. 70AD). After the transition period, ending in 70AD, the new covenant was consumated and became the sole focus of God for both Jew and Gentile forever. Coper |
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