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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | jonp | 183906 | ||
Hi, While I can fully agree that Jesus came in judgement on Jerusalem in 70 AD just as He came in power at Pentecost and in what followed I note that no one has mentioned what Luke says. There the position is expressed with total clarity. First the destruction of Jerusalem (Luke 21.21-24. Then the scattering of the Jews as they are led captive among all nations (Luke 21.24). Then the treading down of Jerusalem during the times of the Gentiles (Luke 21.24). Then the cosmic effects and men fainting for fear at what is to come (Luke 21.25-26). And then the Son of Man will come in power and great glory (Luke 21.27). I fail to see in this how His coming in glory can indicate the destruction of Jerusalem as important events are to take place between them. The 'these things' (which are to happen in that generation) are the indicators of the coming time of redemption, not the time of redemption itself (Luke 21.28), which Jesus did not know (Mark 13.32). They are the leaves that indicate that the Kingly Rule of God is near (Luke 21.29), not the actual coming of the Kingly Rule of God in His coming. There is no question therefore of unfulfilled prophecy. I do not wish to prolong this subject which has been well aired. But it important that we take all Scriptures into account. Perhaps you could be kind enough to explain what you think Luke meant, if he did not mean what he said. All best wishes jonp |
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2 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | Coper44 | 183925 | ||
jonp, Can you provide Scripture that describes the Day of Pentecost as the coming of the Lord? I've always thought it was the coming of the Holy Spirit. The same Comforter that Jesus said He would send. I don't see this as a coming of Christ. In fact I haven't found Scriptural support for more than two "comings". Heb. 9:28 Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not to deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him. It's interesting that you appeal to Luke 21 to support two separate "comings" of Christ. One in judgement on Jerusalem and one in power and great glory to further fulfill prophecy. Luke 21:22 for these are days of vengeance, to fulfill all that is written. Since we are to take "all Scriptures into account" what do you think the phrase "all that is written" is refering to? Scripture leads us to the conclusion that the coming of the Lord in judgement was also the second coming to which the NT refers. Coper |
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3 | 70A.D. or not? | Matt 16:28 | jonp | 183935 | ||
Hi Coper. Yes there are Scriptures which refer to Jesus returning in different ways. For example. 'I will not leave you comfortless, I will come to you,' (John 14.18). Does this not refer to Pentecost? Again in Matthew 28.20 Jesus says, 'And lo I am with you always'. Does this not have Pentecost in mind?. Again Jesus says, 'If a man loves Me he will keep My word, and My Father will love Him, and we will come to Him and make our home with Him.' Here we have Jesus continually coming a million times over. Again in Matthew 18.20 we read, 'where two or three are gathered together in My name, there am I in the midst of them.' He could not be in the midst of them without coming! Hebrews 9.28 refers to a physical coming. I did not suggest that Jesus came physically at Pentecost or in the destruction of Jerusalem. My point in using Luke 21 was in order to demonstrate that Jesus made absolutely clear that there was a period of time between what happened to Jerusalem, and His glorious appearing. He demonstrated that there was a fairly large gap between them. Now please do not go off at a tangent. I am waiting to be convinced (I am not a pre-tribulational rapturist). If you can go through Luke 21.20-26 and show me what it means step by step then I will consider that you have an argument. If you cannot then my case is proved. Best wishes jonp |
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