Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | mark d seyler | 183604 | ||
Hi Coper, What do you make of this passage? Heb 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Heb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; What are the "last days" spoken of here, and when did they occur? What relevance does your answer to this question have towards how we view "time frames" in Biblical writings? From a different direction, concerning the prophecies, do we see literal fulfillments, or do we need to understand certain prophecies as symbolic in order to see them as having been fulfilled? If you answer yes to the latter, then I ask you, does the text give us that authority to without reservation declare that such-and-such passage is not be be understood as the plain statement it makes, but should be understood as actually referring to something other than what it says? To me, this is critically important, since if we are to make the claim that while the Bible says one thing, but actually means something else, we need to have a rock solid Biblical foundation for that claim. Do you believe that any given passage of Scripture has one truth (though there may be several applications), and that this truth is knowable? I would assert the the preterist view as it is predominantly taught is dependant on interpreting passages of Scripture in ways that are not supported by Scripture itself, and that if one only interprets Scripture in the way that Scripture presents itself, then a futurist view of Jesus' coming in power and glory, and of the 1000 year reign is the only view allowed by Scripture. Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
2 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | Coper44 | 183654 | ||
Mark, You are asking the same types of questions that I've been dealing with for some time now. I just finished writing to BradK and I covered some of the questions you asked. But, I'll answer you questions specifically to best of my ability. 1. What are the "last days" spoken of here, and when did they occur? The writer of the book of Hebrews was very specific in saying that they were living in the "last days". If they were living in the last days, how can any other time be considered the last days unless we re-define the word "last". If one holds that the entire 2000 year church age (up to now) has been the last days, it seems that the term loses all meaning. The last days of the church age would be longer than the entire old covenant age. So, the last days were to be considered by the first century audience the days leading up to Christ's return. Which by the way must have been understood by them to be within their generation, soon, at hand etc. 2. What relevance does your answer to this question have towards how we view "time frames" in Biblical writings? The time-frames are defined by the writers themselves. For example, what did Peter have in mind when he wrote: "The end of all things is near" 1 Pet. 4:7? Unless one re-defines "near" we must take Peter at face value. 3. ...does the text give us that authority to without reservation declare that such-and-such passage is not be be understood as the plain statement it makes, but should be understood as actually referring to something other than what it says? Of course we should understand Scripture in context. Having said that we must determine how to put something into context. We must ask: Who, what, where, why and how. Who was the writer. Who was he writing to. What was he saying to them etc. This is why I'm so focused on the time-frames and audience relevance in Scripture. It is the best way to begin to place the Scripture into its proper context. And, It is more difficult to misinterpret the text by applying something to someone it was not intended to be applied to. 4. Do you believe that any given passage of Scripture has one truth (though there may be several applications), and that this truth is knowable? Yes. Without question. That is why we must begin by placing Scripture into its proper context. Thanks for your excellant questions. Coper |
||||||
3 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | mark d seyler | 183683 | ||
Hi Coper, Thank you for a good answer! I have to respond quickly, so this will be short. The "last days" referring to a 2000 period is relevant if the "first days" referred to a 4000 year period. There is the possiblitly that we re-defining the writers terms, but is it possible we are simply preferring our own definitions? We have to be sure we have defined the writers terms from within the text, and not just as we use these English translations today. But to the heart of the matter, if you believe that, for instance, the plagues of Revelation have happened (trumpets, bowls), then you need to show one of two things. Either that these events as described happened literally in the past, ---or--- how the text supports that these events as described do not refer to literal events, that they symbolize other events; you have to show, from the text, what they symbolize, and then be able to say where they happened in history. . . . without gaps, or leaving parts un-authenticated, or unfulfilled. Can you do either of these? Love in Christ, Mark |
||||||
4 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | Coper44 | 183722 | ||
Mark, Thanks for your compliment and your further questions. I would say first that I believe that the "first days", as far as the NT is concerned, is the old covenant period which was in force for, I believe, 1500 years or so. That would mean that the 2000 year "last days" are longer, by 500 years and counting, than the entire period that was said to be ending. Again, take a look at the Heb. 8:13 passage. I don't think that the burden of proof is on me or anyone else to show that the details of the relevant prophecies took place literally or spiritually in the past. Again, if the time-frame clearly spelled out in Scripture places these prophetic events in the first century the authority of Scripture itself depends on whether or not they took place as predicted. That is why I've said that we should thoroughly study the time-frames to settle the issue. If they show an imminent coming of Christ, then he, by necessity, returned in the first century. If they indicate no such imminency, then the question is open regarding a future coming. So, the burden of proof lies with you and others to eliminate the idea of an imminent coming of Christ from a first century perspective. With respect, Coper |
||||||
5 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | Morant61 | 183744 | ||
Greetings Coper! You wrote to Brad: "hat is why I've said that we should thoroughly study the time-frames to settle the issue. If they show an imminent coming of Christ, then he, by necessity, returned in the first century." In other words, you have already predetermined how any conversation about this topic is going to turn out since you have defined the terms to fit your position. Where exactly does Scripture define an imminent return as necessarily a first century return? This seems to be an assumption on your part. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
6 | Still not convinced preterism is false | Matt 16:28 | Coper44 | 183924 | ||
Tim, First, my intention was not to define the terms to "fit my position". I thought I was clear as to my motive. I asked if we could limit our discussions, at least initially, to the clear time frame of the NT and the audience to whom it was originally directed. Because, if we were to open it up to every relevant topic it would be endless and little would be accomplished. This is why I felt we could establish a foundation based on the more clear teachings of Scripture then we could go on to interpret the more obscure. By doing this we could eliminate unnecessary diversions. You asked, "Where exactly does Scripture define an imminent return as necessarily a first century return?" Scripture does not use the word "imminent" to my knowledge. However, most of the posts have expressed the fact that the NT repeatedly uses words like soon, near, at hand, about to be etc. to frame the coming events. How do you define these terms? Again, you would better understand the preterist perspective if you viewed the words of the NT writers from the perspective of their audiences. Have you done that? If you lived in that generation and heard Jesus and the Apostles speak those words how would you interpret them? Let me know what you come up with. Coper |
||||||