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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31368 | ||
Hello, The main problem that I see with "Sons of God" referring to Angels is that this passage would be the one, and only time that this phrase is used to mean angels. On top of that, you have passages in the New Testament in which the Greek clearly is saying something other than what everybody is wanting it to say. Take Jude 5-7 for example. I have shown through an analysis of the Greek that verse seven is not talking about the cities in relation to the actions of the angels in verse 6, but the cities in relation to the actions of Sodom and Gamorrah, which are listed in verse 7. Also, all that Peter says is that the angels left their natural domain. He says nothing that even hints to idea that angels had relations with humans. Then you have the question in Hebrews 1:5 that asks, "to which of the angels has HE said, you are my son, today I have begotten thee?" Then you have the numerous times where human believers, either Israel or Christians, and Jesus Christ are all called the "Sons of God". I have dismissed the passages in Job chapters 1 and 2 because of the question of what the original text says. Some manuscripts have "angels of God" and others have "Sons of God". This variation makes Job's passages unreliable in this discussion. Even further, there is the context of Genesis 1 - 19. Up until the destuction of Sodom and Gamorrah in Genesis 19, the only angelic creature referred to is the Cherubim with the flaming sword. To talk about angels for a length of 4 verses without calling them angels, then to refer to them by name again 12 chapters later adds confusion. Also, Genesis 2-3 talks about God and Man. Genesis 4-5 talks about the growth of Man, specifically Cain and Seth. With these two chapters you have names that appear in both lines. Then from Genesis 6:5- chapter 10 you have Noah's Ark. Now, to refer to angels in Genesis 6:1-4 makes me ask the questions, "where did the angels come from, and Why weren't they talked about before?" Remember the duplication of Names I mentioned, how do you resolve that if Genesis 6:1-4 refers to angels marrying humans? The only solution which solves these problems is that the Sons of God refers to Seth's line, the Daughters of Men refers to Cain's line, and Genesis 6:1-4 talks about when the two lines intermarried. It is the only way that it all makes sense. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman "God is not a God of confusion but of peace," 1 Corinthians 14:33. |
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2 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 31696 | ||
Dear Jesusman, Thanks for the response and for repeating yourself. I agree God is not the author of confusion nor does His word ever conflict with itself, and this is why I do my best to get out of the way and allow Scripture to interpret Scripture. When ever I forget to do this I try to remember the following verse, John 4:23-24 24 God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in spirit and in truth." (from New International Version) With the above verse in mind at all times, I was reading what you wrote and a particular sentence stood out to me, You said,"Also, all that Peter says is that the angels left their natural domain. He says nothing that even hints to idea that angels had relations with humans.", on the contrary, 2 Cor 5:2 2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven: KJV In the above verse it says,"in this we groan" in reference to the mortal flesh body and, "our house which is from heaven" refers to our immortal spiritual body. The word,"house", in the Greek is oiketerion. The Greek word "oiketerion" is only used twice in the New Testament, the other is in the following verse, Jude 6 6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. KJV The above verse says that the angels "left their own habitation". The Greek word for "habitation" is "oiketerion". In the Strongs the Greek number is 3613 and these are the only two times it is used and in both instances oiketerion is preceeded with a definite article. In the simplicity which is in Christ, this means that the angels left their spiritual existence to take on an existence in the flesh and I would conclude that once in the form of the flesh proceeded to takes wives of the daughters of men and procreate, giving birth to the nephilim, giants, mighty men of old, men of renown. We could ask ourselves how does a spirit take on the form of a man, but think about the man filled with a legion when this question arises, yes the Bible gives plenty example of spirits entering into the flesh. I hope this helps with your understanding of why I believe that the sons of God in Gen 6 are indeed fallen angels. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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