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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130262 | ||
Greetings Tara! I have posted many times on the JW's false translation of John 1:1. So, I won't repeat all of that now. :-) However, I would like to demonstrate that the argument made concerning the definite article is false. Scripture uses 'theos' many times without the definite article in contexts where it is clear that God is in view. The following are all verses where 'theos' is used without an article. 1) Mt. 4:4 - "Jesus answered, 'It is written: ‘Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.'" 2) Mt. 5:9 - "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called sons of God." 3) Mt. 6:24 - "'No one can serve two masters. Either he will hate the one and love the other, or he will be devoted to the one and despise the other. You cannot serve both God and Money.'" 4) Mt. 19:26 - "Jesus looked at them and said, 'With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.'" 5) Acts 5:29 - "Peter and the other apostles replied: 'We must obey God rather than men!'" 6) Acts 5:39 - "'But if it is from God, you will not be able to stop these men; you will only find yourselves fighting against God.'" There are many other examples, but these should suffice. It is simply not true that 'theos' without the definite article must mean 'divine' rather than 'God'. The JW's mistranslation of Jn. 1:1 is driven by false theology, not by Greek grammar. By the way, here is how the NWT translates the examples above where 'theos' is used without a definite article. 1) Mt. 4:4 - "...but on every utterance coming forth through Jehovah's mouth". That's odd! 'Theos' without the article refers to Jehovah? :) 2) Mt. 5:9 - "...they will be called 'sons of God.'" 3) Mt. 6:24 - "...You cannot slave for God and for Riches." 4) Mt. 19:26 - "...but with God all things are possible.'" 5) Acts 5:29 - "...'We must obey God as ruler rather than men.'" 6) Acts 5:39 - "'But if it is from God,..." Notice that the NWT translation also translates 'theos' without an article as refering to God, not 'a god' or 'divine'. In fact, in the first example, they even specify that 'theos' without the article is a reference to Jehovah. Yet, in John 1:1, they try to argue that 'theos' without the article cannot be a reference to Jehovah! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | following him | 130290 | ||
Hello Tim; I thank the Lord for brothers like you who have a solid grasp of the greek, not only that but you seem to be able to explain it in ways that even I can understand. I have a question along the same lines as this thread. The first and the last. Isaiah 44:6 "Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: 'I am the first and I am the last, and there is no God besides Me.” Jehovah is the first and the last and there is no other God (first and last) Rev. 22:13 "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end." The first and the last, Alpha and Omega and the beginning and the end are one and the same. Rev 1:8 "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "Who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty." The Alpha and Omega is the Lord God is the Almighty Jehovah (equals) First and the last (equals) Alpha and Omega (equals) Beginning and the end (equals) Lord God (equals) the Almighty. Rev. 1:17-18 “When I saw Him, I fell at His feet like a dead man. And He placed His right hand on me, saying, "Do not be afraid; I am the first and the last, and the living One; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades. Rev. 2:8 "And to the angel of the church in Smyrna write: The first and the last, who was dead, and has come to life, says this: If the first and the last is Jehovah, when did Jehovah die and come to life? As far as I know He didn’t, Jesus did. Jesus claims here that He is the first and the last. The book of Revelation is a book that reveals Jesus Christ. It reveals Him to be not only equal with God, but God Himself. Is there anything in the greek grammatical structure that would make this reasoning invalid? Blessings to you Aaron |
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3 | One God, One Jesus Christ | 1 Cor 8:5 | Morant61 | 130293 | ||
Greetings Aaron! Thanks for the kind words my friend! I think you are absolutely correct in your explanation. Scripture consitently uses titles for Jesus that reveal He is in fact God. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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