Subject: "Sons" of perdition? |
Bible Note: Love Fountain: You wrote: "I always thought the Holy Spirit was the author of the whole Bible, but you are saying that John and 2Thes had two different authors? Yes. John was written by John. Second Thessalonians was written by Paul. You do believe that, do you not? You wrote: "To this I ask you, has not Jesus overcome satan and satan has thereby been given over to Christ?" To the first question, yes. To the second question, I have no idea what you mean by "given over to Christ." In any sense, go back and read the context of John 17. Jesus has lost someone. That is what the word "perdition" really means, by the way. Did God give Satan to Jesus, and then He lost him? Does that really make sense to you? It is quite clear from the context of the prayer that Jesus is referring to Judas, the one who betrayed him. It is also very clear that the one being referred to in 2 Thessalonians is the one referred to by most as the Antichrist. Notice that it is a MAN of lawlessness. Satan is a fallen angel. Context, context, context! Even though the Hebrew idiom "son of perdition" is used in both places, it does not necessarily refer to the same person. In fact, the term "son of perdition" could refer to a great many individuals, when you get right down to it. But neither in John nor in 2 Thessalonians does it refer to Satan himself. --Joe! |