Subject: "Sons" of perdition? |
Bible Note: Greetings Love Fountain! Not quite! :-) If they were in the same passage, or even passages written by the same author, one might be able to make that claim. However, these are two different passages by two different authors. For instance, in John 17:12, the first 'them' is a reference to those God had given Christ - i.e. the Disciples. Jesus states that He lost none of them except the son of perdition. Thus, the son of perdition had to be one of those given to Christ by God - i.e. one of the Disciples. The definite article alone in two seperate passages doesn't necessarily mean that the same individual is in view. The definite article is for all intents and purposes a pronoun. Thus, John could write about a specific man by saying 'the man', while Paul could write about an entirely different man by saying 'the man'. The context determines which man is which. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |