Subject: "Sons" of perdition? |
Bible Note: Dear Tim, Thank you for the response. You state,"If they were in the same passage, or even passages written by the same author, one might be able to make that claim. However, these are two different passages by two different authors." How could this be? Two different authors? 2 Peter 1:20-21 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. KJV I always thought the Holy Spirit was the author of the whole Bible, but you are saying that John and 2Thes had two different authors? I also thought that Jesus comes to us in the volume of the book as it is written in the following, Heb 10:7 7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God. KJV Ps 40:7 7 Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book it is written of me, KJV Are we to look at the context of each book of the Bible being separate or at the whole context of the Bible as being one? You also state,"Thus, the son of perdition had to be one of those given to Christ by God - i.e. one of the Disciples." To this I ask you, has not Jesus overcome satan and satan has thereby been given over to Christ? Bless you, Love Fountain |