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NASB | Galatians 2:17 "But if, while seeking to be justified in Christ, we ourselves have also been found sinners, is Christ then a minister of sin? May it never be! |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Galatians 2:17 "But if, while we seek to be justified in Christ [by faith], we ourselves are found to be sinners, does that make Christ an advocate or promoter of our sin? Certainly not! |
Bible Question:
I know this subject has been raised already, (see the thread started with the question "Is God responsible for evil? 02/27/01), but it seems to me that it was not sufficiently answered by those holding to a strong calvanistic point of view. So, if I may, I would like to raise the question again in slightly different form. C.H. Spurgeon wrote in his "Sum of Saving Knowledge," at least as I have had it quoted to me, "In eternity past, God did most wisely decree, for his own glory, whatever comes to pass in time: and in a most holy and infallible manner executes all his decrees, without being author of the sin of any creature." How can both of his assertions be true? How could God predetermine (that is, "in eternity past... decree")that "whatever comes to pass in time" (which must therefore included sin, since sin has come to pass in time), "without being author of the sin?" If God decreed that it must exist before before it existed, that would, by definition, make him the author of sin, would it not? Bob |
Bible Answer: Bob: Well, I hold a strongly Calvinistic point of view, so I hope I can shed some light on it for you! I don't know if Spurgeon made this statement himself, but it does reflect the viewpoint of Reformed theology quite well. The understanding of it hinges on grasping the meaning of the word "decree." To decree something is to simply declare that that thing shall happen. In the case of God's sovereign decree, the decreed event can either come from God causing it directly, or by God allowing it to happen. Sin falls into the latter category. From eternity past, God knew that His creation would rebel against Him. Therefore, He created Adam and Eve already knowing that the serpent (which He also created, knowing from eternity past that he would be His chief adversary) would be successful in leading them into sin. This was not some "mistake" or "fluke" on the part of a non-omniscient God. God, by creating the agents involved and allowing them to sin on their own, decreed what would come to pass. he then in turn used it, is using it, and will use it to glorify Himself. Sending Jesus was not "Plan B" to make up for what man had done. We read in Ephesians 1:4-5 that God had chosen and predestined the elect "from the foundation of the world." Therefore, God the Son had already consented to be the Savior before man was even formed out of the dust. This is what is known in Reformed theology as the "covenant of redemption," made among the three Persons of the Trinity in eternity past. Agin, God did not CAUSE the sin, but in His infinite sovereignty He declared that it would occur. We also see evidence of God intending to use man-originated sin for His purposes as well. In fact, Scripture is replete with such situations. His hardening of Pharaoh's heart (Pharaoh was the sinner; God just didn't bring him to repentance) in the book of Exodus is a famous example. God used Pharaoh's stubborn rebellion against Him to glorify Himself and His chosen people. Another excellent example is found in the book of Judges, when God's purposes for the sinful neighbors of Israel is spelled out in no uncertain terms: "So the anger of the LORD burned against Israel, and He said, 'Because this nation has transgressed My covenant which I commanded their fathers and has not listened to My voice, I also will no longer drive out before them any of the nations which Joshua left when he died, in order to test Israel by them, whether they will keep the way of the LORD to walk in it as their fathers did, or not.' So the LORD allowed those nations to remain, not driving them out quickly; and He did not give them into the hand of Joshua." --Judges 2:20-23 We see that God refuses to keep driving out the enemies of Israel for a very specific purpose (i.e to test them). God allows these idolatrous, sinful nations to remain; he decrees that these nations which rebel against the true God will continue in the presence of His people and will continue in their sin. Does this mean that God causes the sin? Of course not. Similarly we can see all other "sinful events, such as Satan's temptation of Jesus (led out by the Spirit for that purpose -- Matthew 4:1) and the Babylonian captivity in that light. While the perpetrators of the events were clearly in opposition to God, God without a doubt decreed that these individuals would flourish in their sin for a season, so that in the end His glory would be known. The simple fact is that God is in control of every infinitessimal detail of His creation. Nothing happens unless He ultimately allows it, and in His omniscience and omipotence nothing happens that takes Him by surprise or falls outside of His ability to control. Factor in that He is perfect and incapable of sin, and what we have is a basis for the statement you attributed to Spurgeon. The thing that must be remembered in all of this is that God uses all of this for His own glory, all things together for good for us who are called according to His purpose (Romans 8:28). "Remember the former things long past, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me, Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things which have not been done, Saying, 'My purpose will be established, And I will accomplish all My good pleasure" --Isaiah 46:9-10 --Joe! |