Bible Question: Does 1Corinthians chapters 12-14 teach that tongues are ecstatic utterances or real human languages.Does not glossa mean languages or dialects of a certain nation or people? |
Bible Answer: In this answer Im going to borrow most of my material from John MacArthur. Are Tongues in 1 Corinthians 12-14 an ecstatic language? Answer: no Explaniation: Tongues is a sign gift. It is a human language under inspiration that was not previously known. Its purpose was to gather a crowd. The same greek word for tongue is used in Acts 2 and in 1 Corinthians 14 so since there is no new definition given they must mean the same thing. One thing the reader must understand is the culture of the Corinthians. They were exposed to pagan "mystery" religions. These religons were erotic, sensual, ecstatic and designed to be felt. When the people would worship they would actually enter into orgies with the temple priestesses. The the ecstatic, sensual, erotic religion was combined with gibberish. The language of the greek gods was gibberish and is exactly like the type we see in charasmatic circles today. Lets read the text. Pursue Love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially tat you may prophesy. v1 (The word prophecy (propheteuo) means "to speak before somebody else). For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men, but to God, for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries. v2 (The articke is not present in greek for the word God. It can be translated God but the context stongly suggests it should be "Gods". "Mysteries" means divine truth not revealed until now and is same word used to describe the mystery religions prevalient in the pagan religions. If Jesus actually wanted us to speak to him in ecstatic utterances then why would he forbid it in Matt 6:7 when Jesus said "And when you are praying, do not use meaningless repetition, as the Gentiles do, for they suppose that they will be heard for their many words". In this passage Jesus was commanding his disciples not to pray as the gentiles with their meaningless ecstatic utterances. Throughout this chapter Paul also distingishes between "tongue" and "tongues". The KJV translators might have interpretated this passage the way I do today. Also in Verse 4 Paul gives the point of the entire chapter, edification of the Church. Later in v7 Paul states that there has to be meaningful variation in the sound. Sound alone without variation from a beautiful instrument. And in verse 8 Paul points out that there ecstatic utterances, unlike human language, does not have any structure and is therefore useless. I can write more but I have to go. If you would like a more detailed explaniation then look up John MacArthurs sermons in a search engine |