Bible Question: Does 1Corinthians chapters 12-14 teach that tongues are ecstatic utterances or real human languages.Does not glossa mean languages or dialects of a certain nation or people? |
Bible Answer: according to a close examination of Paul's statements in 1 Cor 14 it is obvious that the tongues Paul prayed in more than all the corinthians was such that he did not understand it himself. So if Paul did not understand it, then it was not a language he learned by natural processes. If it was a language that someone on the planet knew Paul did not know what or who knew it. So the safest answer is that Yes on the day of Pentecost there were many that heard their own language coming from men that had not learned. There is no reason to think that the 120 knew what they were saying... Paul said he could not understand his tongues and so he would pray to himself and to God in tongues and then at times he would pray to himself and to God in his understanding (greek or hebrew or both I suppose) So the answer might be that some one on the planet would recognize it or maybe not, but the fact that no one was going to even be around when Paul was praying in tongues between himself and God demomstrates that that would be a mute (pardon the pun) point. Even if you do not know which or any language it is it is still edifying to excercise the gift of praying in tongues. Now in the Church (not between yourself and God) you still would need and interpreter. So Paul mentions the gift of interpretation, not the art of language, the one that exercised the gift of interpretation was operating in the Spiritual gift and would then speak what the other said in tongues in the common language of the congregation. Does all this sound wierd to you? This is how the first church allowed God to have His way in their midst and it is how charismatics still do. You can see all these Holy Spirit gifts still in operation in the church today. |