Bible Question: Does 1Corinthians chapters 12-14 teach that tongues are ecstatic utterances or real human languages.Does not glossa mean languages or dialects of a certain nation or people? |
Bible Answer: The spirit give the utterance acts 2:4. acts 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them [speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God. The book of acts speakes of both languages and an unknown tongue. Peter expolaned the coming of the spirit. In Acts 2:14-36. Glossaalaia( glossa) A term, first used in english around 1879, referring to the religious phenomenon of speaking with tongues. It comes from glossaislalein,a greek phrase used in the new testament withch literally means "to speak in [or "with"or "by"]tongues." It was introduced in Acts 2:1-4 as an accompanying sign of the filling of the Holy spirt (apparently only Jews recieved the holy spirit and spoke in tongues at the time). Other instances occurred in Acts 10(when Gentiles experenced it) and in Acts 19 ( when "religious" persons already baptized"unto John's baptism" were re-baptized, filled with the spirit and spoke in tongues). More later--EZEKIEL |