Subject: Does speaking in tongues come naturally? |
Bible Note: Great question. For the record, I've always had a problem with 13 -1 Corth. until I began to view it as the habitation of God Himself. Ergo, the kingdom of Himself with Jesus Christ being the King/Ruler. Re-read the chapter and substitute out the word 'love' with the word 'God'....That's His name anyway so you really aren't changing any words around to satisfy some bent of private interpretation. For that matter you could insert the phrase 'kingdom of God' and still be correct. Lets try it on part of it: 1 Cor. 13:1 [NASB] If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but do not have love [God], I have become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but do not have love [abide in the kingdom of God], I have become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. Lets extend it: If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but do not have "the mind of God", I have become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. One more time: If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but do not have "the FAITH of Christ", I have become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. Now when you read the scriptures elseware in the Bible Like James 2:17: "Even so faith, [the faith of Christ I live by], if it hath not works, is dead, being alone." [---] my emphasis. We can see that we must "abide in Christ" in the kingdom [which is Himself] to do those kinds of works since HIS faith is the faith that pleases God.. Why? Because it is the mind of God...equal to Himself...perfection! The center of Christianity. When I actually saw it in a Spiritual Geograpghical way then I began to see my condition with it problems that couldn't be solved until I moved over there...Abiding. |