Subject: Does speaking in tongues come naturally? |
Bible Note: If you beleive when an unbeliever hears tongues it is a known language to him. If this were true then there would not have been a reason for Paul to teach the Church in the proper use of the gift. How do you exsplain (1 Cor 14:23) also (1 Cor 13:1) do not state or imply that the language of Angels is always understood by all men. Paul would have no need to say "though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels" if there is no difference. |