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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Morant61 | 19557 | ||
Greetings Lionstrong! I think you are straining at gnats! :-) But, to satisfy you: My definition of propitiation is that it is a term which refers to the appeasement of God's wrath on the cross, accomplished once and for all by Christ on our behalf, and extending to the sins of every man, woman, and child who has ever lived, currently lives, or ever will live. This is a definition is based upon the eight verse where the word group is actually used in the New Testament. Now, how about answering my question? Which part of my definition violates the text of any of these eight verses? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Lionstrong | 19610 | ||
I forgot to write my conclusion, Tim, Conclusion: While the NT uses the word propitiation and its forms, it does not define it. Hence, the meaning of propitiation in the NT has no significance beyond the usual meaning, which does not include its extent, but simply means the act of appeasing, or of rendering favorable, or of turning aside wrath. Therefore, with respect to the debate at hand, the EXTENT of Christ's propitiation cannot be determined_BY_the definition of propitiation alone. Nevertheless, without an understanding of the meaning of propitiation one cannot discover the extent of it. Peace, Lionstrong |
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