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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Subject: The 'Kosmos' in 1 John |
Bible Note: I'm sorry, Brother Tim, That you see it as straining at gnats. I see it as making sure that you yourself see what you're calling a definition of propitiation. As your definition assumes the point at issue, it does not violate the text of any of the eight verses. However, your analysis of the eight verses does not warrant such a definition. 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. -says who the propitiation's for and the extent(which is our point of contention). Does not say what propitiation is. ********************************* 1 John 4:10 In this is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son to be the propitiation FOR OUR SINS. -says why the propition was necessary (God's wrath incurred by our sins), but does not say what propitiation is. ************************************* Luke 18:13 "But the tax collector, standing some distance away, was even unwilling to lift up his eyes to heaven, but was beating his breast, saying, 'God, be merciful to me, the sinner!' -is a repentant sinner's request for God to be propitious. God is the object of Christ's propitiation, but this verse does not define the term. ********************************** Heb 2:17 Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. -the office in which Christ executes the propitiatory sacrice (the office of priest). One note (in my favor :-) ): following the OT figure, the propitiation is made for the people--the Philistines? No, God's people, Israel. So like wise in the NT, propitiation is not for everyone, but for the people of God only, those who are his by faith in our Lord. But still, propitiation is not defined. *************************************** Rom 3:25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; -faith, the instrument by which the propitiation of our Lord is applied to us. Propitiation is "in his blood" alone "through faith" alone. This excludes unbelievers. But again, this verse does not define our word. ******************************************** Heb 9:5 and above it were the cherubim of glory overshadowing the mercy seat; but of these things we cannot now speak in detail. -the lid on the Ark was called the propitiation. Who alone had access to the Holy of Holies? And for whom did he enter once a year--for the Egyptians? No, God's people. Again, an OT figure for the reality in Christ who went into the true Holy of Holies with his own blood for God's people. Nope, no definition. *************************************** Heb 8:12 "FOR I WILL BE MERCIFUL TO THEIR INIQUITIES, AND I WILL REMEMBER THEIR SINS NO MORE." -God will be propitious. The context is the New Covenant. How do we become partakers of the New Covenant wherein God will be propitious toward our iniquities and remember our sins no more? By faith alone! NOT for unbelievers. But it doesn't define propitious. ************************************ Matt 16:22 Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, "God forbid it, Lord! This shall never happen to You." -Lord have mercy! Peace, Lionstrong |