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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Subject: The 'Kosmos' in 1 John |
Bible Note: Greetings Lionstrong! You totally lost me on this one my friend. You said: "It's one thing to say propitiation means "Christ has appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived," and another thing to say that the propitiation (which means removing the deivine wrath) of Christ "appeased God's wrath against the sins of every man, woman, and child, who has ever lived, or ever will lived." Yet, both of your statements are the same. I said quite clearly that Christ's death appeased God's wrath against every sin, of all people, for all time. The only thing I can figure is that you see a difference between appeasing God's wrath and removing God's wrath. If so, please explain the difference! My definition is exactly what the verses refered to state that it is: 1) It is an appeasement of God's wrath against sin, through the atoning sacrifice of Christ - Rom. 3:25 and Heb. 2:17. 2) It was offered for our sins and for the sins of the whole world - 1 John 2:2. Which part of this is not true to the verses? I understand that your theological perspective rejects the view that propiation is univeral in extent, but there is not a single verse where the word groups occurs that limits the extent. To limit the extent is an assumption based upon your theology, but a fact based upon the verses. Again, the word groups appears in: Luke 18:13 and Heb. 2:17, 1 John 2:2 and 1 John 4:10, Rom. 3:25 and Heb. 9:5, and Mt. 16:22 and Heb. 8:12. Which of these verses (the only ones where the word group occurs) says that propitiation is only for the sins of the elect? The only one which deals with the extent is 1 John 2:2 and it clearly does not limit the extent. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |