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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Morant61 | 19528 | ||
Greetings Joe! Good to hear from you my friend! Let me take each point seperately! 1) John 8:21-24: This one is simple! Verse 24 answers your question. It says, "if you do not believe....you will die in your sins." This is a conditional statement. Jesus gave them a choice. Even TULIP seems to teach that the benefits of the atonement are approriated by faith. The only difference is that TULIP teaches that only the elect will respond in faith, whereas I believe that salvation is a universal offer to which anyone CAN respond, but not everyone DOES respond. 2) Acts 22:15: I would say that Paul has witnessed to all men about what he saw and heard through the Bible. The verse never said that all men would hear it or read it. Either way, to say that all doesn't mean all here is a judgement call, not a fact. 3) Rom. 5:18: So does "all men" in the first part of the verse not refer to "all men"? Part of the problem with this verse is that there is not a single verb. It literally reads: "Therefore, as through one sin unto all men unto condemnation, so also by one righteous acts unto all men unto justification of life." However we interpret the verse, it is clear that there is an exact correspondence being described. One resulted in condemnation for all men and one resulted in justification for all men. We can't take the first "all men" to mean all men, and the second "all men" to mean some men. Now, to be clear, I do not believe in universalism. I think the key to understand v. 18 is found in vv. 17 and 19. Verse 17 refers to those who receive (active voice) the gift of righteousness and grace, while verse 19 refers to many being made righteous (not all). Therefore, I would say that verse 18 speaks to the potential of Christ's atonement. All can be made righteous (just as in Adam all were condemned), but only those who receive the gift (v. 17) of righteousness will be made righteous (v. 19). Thus, all in verse 18 does mean all (in both instances). 4) 2 Peter 3:9: In all honesty, this verse is not a problem for Arminians. It simply states that it is God's desire that all be saved. It never says that all will be saved. It is a problem for those of the reformed tradition (in my opinion) only because of it's definition of sovereignty. Hence, if God's desires all to be saved, all MUST be saved. Therefore, 'all' in 2 Peter 3:9 cannot mean all. I don't buy that line of thinking. 2 Peter 3:9 expresses God's desire, but He has not determined the outcome. p.s. - If God meant "all the elect" in 2 Peter 3:9, why didn't He just say so? :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Reformer Joe | 19566 | ||
Tim: RE: John 8 Reformed teaching goes further than saying "only the elect will respond in faith." We hold that individuals can only die in THEIR sins because they are not atoned for. It is that same situation of "Who pays the just penalty of the sins of the damned?" Arminians seem to say that it is BOTH Christ and the sinner. --Joe! |
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3 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | retxar | 19592 | ||
Hi Joe, Quick question. I claim neither Arminians or Calvinism. I don't want to get things cranked back up here, but I's just got ta know. If the Reformed teaching upholds the view that individuals can only die in their sins, because they are not atoned for, how does it explain Jesus extending forgiveness, personally, to the "non-elect", when no forgiveness was available? (i.e. Mat 19:21, Mar 10:21, Luke 18:22, Luke 23:34). How could Jesus say their sins could be forgiven and they could inherit eternal life, if what He was saying was not actually true and there sins were not atoned for? Thanks bro, retxar |
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