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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Reformer Joe | 19563 | ||
Tim: Regarding Acts 22, my point was that the savage in the deepest jungle of the Amazon forest has not been witnessed to by Paul. Therefore, not "all men." I know that this is so completely obvious so as to be ridiculous. However, the point I was trying to make was that most everyone understands that Ananias' words to Saul were not referring to every single individual on the earth at that time or ours. This is one blatantly obvious example of where "all" needs to be understood in a contextual/common sense fashion. Granted, 2 Peter 3:21 does not fall into the "blatantly obvious" category. However, the sweeping statement that the Reformed simply want to instantly re-define "all" to mean "some" does not really ring true. The problem that the Reformed have with the Arminian interpretation of this verse, incidentally, is that Peter is saying that the return of Christ has not come yet because God is waiting. Why is God waiting? Because he desires for all to come to Christ. When will ALL come to Christ? Never, and God knows that. If his desire regarding the salvation of each and every human being will not be met (God not ultimately getting what He wants is a BIG problem for me, but let's leave that for now), he has known that from the beginning. So once again, what is God waiting for? --Joe! |
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2 | The 'Kosmos' in 1 John | 1 John 2:2 | Morant61 | 19580 | ||
Greetings Joe! I don't know! You'll have to ask Him! :-) However, as someone from a good reformed background would say, "Just because we don't understand what He is waiting for, doesn't mean that it isn't so". ;-) My answer would be that Peter is illustrating a point. God could come at any time. The only thing holding Him back is His patience and His merciful desire for all to come to Christ. Peter doesn't go into detail about when enough will be enough. Concerning Acts 22, it is only a blatant example if you view it from the perspective of the hearer rather than from Paul's perspective. But, however you view it, I would say that there must be a very strong reason to change 'all' to some. 1 John 2:2 and 2 Pet. 3:9 are among those verse that I just don't see any justification for it, other than the necessity of reformed theology. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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