Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | dpettway22 | 1471 | ||
Why do most male Ministers and Pastors pass over this scripture whenever you mention that God has called a woman into the ministry? | ||||||
2 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | Chris | 1541 | ||
This is certainly a controversial topic, and I can only give you my understanding of the Scriptures. Gal. 3:28, in my opinion, is talking about all believers being in the body of Christ. No member of the body is less important than another, but that does not mean that any member of the body can assume any position in the body. See I Cor. 12:20 Paul says there are many members but one body, but a foot cannot be a nose, ect. So, I do not believe Paul wrote Gal. 3:28 with positions of authority in the church in mind. To further add to this conclusion, I Tim. 2:9-15 seems quite adament about women not being in the highest position of authority, Paul being the author of both these letters. Anytime women are forbid something in scripture, I look to see if the reasoning is because of the social climate at the time of writing, or if it is a command from GOD; the reasoning for this one seems to be a command based upon the rights of first born and the punishment of Eve in the garden. I know some say that these verses could be translated as talking about husband and wife, but if that were the case, Paul must have no interest in what single folks do in church, he being single, because the greek words for man and woman remain the same from 2:8 thru to v15. And, there is no further discussion of what should be done in the church by single folks; Paul immediately moves to the leadership positions in the church. I should say that I would only forbid women from assuming the highest role in the church, pastor or elder. I believe that women should be deaconnesses. I also am one to simply trust the scriptures as I read them if the debate is too complicated for my miniscule mind; that may be the case here! Hope this helps! GOD bless! |
||||||
3 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | Brent Douglass | 2682 | ||
1 Timothy 2:9-15 is one of few passages in Paul's letters where he directly identifies the source of guidance as being himself: "I do not allow...." This is a portion of a letter written by a man with apostolic authority in his speech and writing. While Paul speaks and writes authoritatively as a vessel of God, he also exercises authority 1) as an elder responsible for making leadership decisions if and when a higher leader has been appealed to for resolution; and-or 2) as a counselor who offers his own practice in similar conditions to those currently acting as elders. It appears that Paul is acting in one of these capacities in this case, since he deliberately identifies himself as the source of the guidance. That said, the argument Paul uses for his decision (or perhaps his counsel) is NOT culturally or locally based. As you pointed out, he points back to the garden of Eden for his reasoning. In addition, the depth of Paul's wisdom and understanding of the mind of God is significant -- as a divine pen and mouthpiece whose entire life consistently exemplified God's authority and message. Even if this guidance is merely Paul's counsel to Timothy, it is far more significant and important than counsel from just any leader and needs to be more seriously considered. |
||||||
4 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | Chris | 2688 | ||
I Timothy 2:9-15: I wouldn't label this passage as Paul's opinion, and I believe many would agree with me. This passage is clearly different than the occasions when Paul gives his opinion about widowers, virgins, and folks married to nonbelievers in I Cor., where he clearly states, I say, not the Lord. Paul speaks with the statement, "I" in many commands that most consider commands of GOD. See Eph. 4:1 Therefore I implore you, Romans 12:1 Therefore I urge you, etc. The "therefore" in the two passages are different words than, "but" however they are both particles, and Paul still commands through his own person, but most agree he was speaking for the Lord. See also Rom. 11:11 "I say then, they did not stumble so as to fall, did they?" I don't think this is Paul's opinion, but he does use ‘I'. Back to the relevant passage, starting at I Tim Ch.2:1 Paul uses ‘I' and again, this is considered by many to be a command from GOD. So, I see no difference in verse 12; the particle translated, "But" in the NASB could be 'but' or 'and', so Paul, in my opinion, is simply giving additional information about women in the church. Paul states in v. 7 his authority as an apostle and starts v. 8 with the particle, ‘therefore' and v. 9 starts with ‘likewise' so the authority continues through to v. 15. If you know something about translation, I would like to know if there is any particular reason the NASB chose "But" in verse 12. It seems to me that the context would demand ‘and'. Any comment? Thanks for the comment please let me know if I'm wrong about anything, or if you simply disagree! GOD bless! |
||||||
5 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | kalos | 2709 | ||
1 Cor 7:12a (first part of the verse) The Amplified Bible "To the rest I declare -- I, not the Lord [for Jesus did not discuss this]..." . . . Greetings to you, Chris! I have enjoyed reading your postings to the Forum. If I may, I hope to shed a little light on the discussion of "I, not the Lord." . . . You write in part: "...Paul gives his opinion about widowers, virgins, and folks married to nonbelievers in I Cor., where he clearly states, I say, not the Lord. Paul speaks with the statement, "I" in many commands that most consider commands of GOD." . . . Please note: in 1 Cor 7:12 "*I...say.* Not a denial of inspiration or an indication that Paul is giving human opinion, but simply a way of saying that Jesus had not spoken on this and God had not previously given revelation on the matter, as Paul was then writing" (p. 1738, MacArthur Study Bible, Word, 1997) . . . "(7:12) In vv. 1-12 the contrast is not between inspired teaching and uninspired teaching, as some have supposed. In vv. 10-11 Paul is repeating in substance something already taught by the Lord; but in v. 12 he is dealing with a situation not covered by our Lord's teaching. Instead of disclaiming inspiration for what he writes in v. 12, the apostle is actually claiming for his own words here the same authority as for the words of Christ Himself" (note at 1 Cor 7:12, New Scofield Reference Bible, Oxford, 1967). . . . I thank you for hearing me out. --JVH0212 |
||||||
6 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | Chris | 2724 | ||
I would agree with you on I Cor 7:12. However, I don't think the same authority exists on 7:25. This is definitely an oversight on my part, but I believe many would go to great lengths to argue 7:12 as opinion, so I was trying to differentiate any of these debated "opinions" (and again, I agree with you on 7:12) versus the command style statement in I Tim 2:12. Thanks for the additional info!! GOD bless! | ||||||