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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 91170 | ||
(2nd part) Not only Matthew but all the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures quoted verses from the Hebrew text or from the Septuagint where the divine name appears. For example, in Peter’s speech in Ac 3:22 a quotation is made from De 18:15 where the Tetragrammaton appears in a papyrus fragment of the Septuagint dated to the first century B.C.E. As a follower of Christ, Peter used God’s name, Jehovah. When Peter’s speech was put on record the Tetragrammaton was here used according to the practice during the first century B.C.E. and the first century C.E. Most assuredly someone was trying to hide something here. As I have posted in times past, the use of the Tetra in the Christian Greek Scriptures is not speculative but sound evidence as, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: “Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God’s name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the ‘Lord God’ and the ‘Lord Christ’ which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself.” This presentation of the facts of history in the transmission of Bible manuscripts is “evidence” clearly not mere “speculation” as you assert. Paul in Romans 10:13 quoted Joel 2:32 where he say, “For everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.” If I were to read just the NASB or the NIV the whole point would be obscured! If I read Psalm 110:1 in the same versions, “The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: “Sit at my right hand.” would be obscured. And likewise Matthew quoted this Psalm at Matt 22:44. How clear can it be? Something in Matthew 22:44 is missing in many modern translations! Yes, God’s name was taken out, when Jehovah God had it initially and intentionally. In conclusion, I believe what Jesus himself told us what he had accomplished while on earth. If he had not used his father’s name, how could he have said as he did in John 17:26, “ I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”? Truthfinder |
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2 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Radioman2 | 91197 | ||
'Thus, the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, (WBTS), makes a reasonable case for using the sacred name in the Old Testament and criticizing those who do not. However, in their translation of the New Testament, which they call The Christian Greek Scriptures, they commit an even more grievous and presumptuous error. The NWT inexplicably translates the common Greek words for Lord (kurios) and God (Theos) as "Jehovah" 237 times in the New Testament. This unwarranted substitutionary use of the Old Testament name of God is made, however, only when kurios is used in the context of a clear reference to God in a generic sense, or when used in a passage that is a quote from the Old Testament. However, not once do they translate kurios as Jehovah in the nearly 400 times in the New Testament when it is applied as a title to Jesus Christ. There is simply no legitimate textual or linguistic basis for making that distinction. The word kurios should always be accurately translated, according to context, as Lord or Master, and the word Theos as God, but never either as "Jehovah." 'The reason for the NWT committee’s placement of this name of God in the New Testament is obvious to anyone who understands Jehovah’s Witnesses theology. The WBTS, since its inception over a century ago, has totally rejected the key doctrines of the Holy Trinity and the full deity of Jesus Christ. As a result, in their literature, and especially in their translation of the Bible, they have sought to obscure the clear New Testament teachings of those truths. This deliberate concealment is obvious when one makes a simple comparison of the NWT to the word-for-word translation of the Westcott and Hort Greek Text in the WBTS’ own book The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures (1985). 'The use of Jehovah to translate kurios (Lord) or Theos (God) 237 times in generic reference to God, but never as a title of Jesus, was clearly done to reinforce the distinction between God and Jesus in the minds of uninformed Jehovah’s Witnesses. The truth is that the New Testament writers, following Jewish tradition in the Greek Septuagint’s translation of the Old Testament, understood the term kurios (Lord), in most cases, to be a reference to deity in the fullest sense. Thus, when New Testament writers call Jesus "Lord," they are identifying Him with the God of the Old Testament (Yahweh or Jehovah).' (http://www.namb.net/root/resources/beliefbulletins/cults/new_world_translation.asp) |
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3 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Truthfinder | 91967 | ||
Just a brief comment to your post. I assume that you agree with it, otherwise you would not have posted it. Some of it is true but on the other hand some are mere assertions lacking any truth at all. It would have been most commendable in my opinion if the NWT translators were the ones that discovered the fallacy connected with the translation of the words for Lord. The NWT actually followed a precedent set by well over 150 documented Bible scholars, many of which were Trinitarians themselves. If you have had the privilege of engaging in an in depth research of this subject yourself you surely have come to the same conclusion that I have come to. The underlying problem that presents itself in accepting it though, is belief bias. Something we hate to admit and likewise difficult to overcome. I know you know the account of Paul. He had to be struck blind to see the light by our Lord Jesus. Evidently his heart was right, don’t you agree? My basic belief is honoring my heavenly Father as did faithful men and women for thousands of years before the Messiah came on the scene. I don’t believe that has changed. I honor Jesus as the Son of God, nothing more and nothing less. I too believe that my Lord and Savior Jesus repeatedly teaches me to do just that throughout the Gospels. I am a truth finder and I do adjust my thinking from time to time as the Scriptures show me. I pray for an open heart, for a humble heart, to be able to do this. I research and research, making sure of what the “original” tells me. Additionally, I would never share my findings with anyone to mislead them, if I first did not totally believe them and have scriptural basis. Thus, if I offend anyone, I believe it’s the truth of the Word of God that did the offending. Reasoning on the Scriptures has been my life now for almost a half century and I still enjoy it regardless of the response. If you do the same as I, then tell me why the difference in understanding and belief? Sincerely Truthfinder |
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4 | If Jesus did it, way can't I? | John 1:1 | Hank | 91972 | ||
Truthfinder: In re: Radioman's Post #91197. You say that some of it is true but some are assertions lacking any truth at all. What kind of remark is that and what does it say? Absolutely nothing. You say absolutely nothing. You accuse a man of posting assertions/lack of truth/lies -- but you follow up with nothing to prove that Radioman's post is in error. Way to go, "Truthfinder" -- if you are such hot stuff in finding the truth, share it with Radioman. I'm sure he's waiting and would receive the truth with great alacrity. --Hank | ||||||