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NASB | John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:1 In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. [Gen 1:1; Is 9:6] |
Subject: If Jesus did it, way can't I? |
Bible Note: (2nd part) Not only Matthew but all the writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures quoted verses from the Hebrew text or from the Septuagint where the divine name appears. For example, in Peter’s speech in Ac 3:22 a quotation is made from De 18:15 where the Tetragrammaton appears in a papyrus fragment of the Septuagint dated to the first century B.C.E. As a follower of Christ, Peter used God’s name, Jehovah. When Peter’s speech was put on record the Tetragrammaton was here used according to the practice during the first century B.C.E. and the first century C.E. Most assuredly someone was trying to hide something here. As I have posted in times past, the use of the Tetra in the Christian Greek Scriptures is not speculative but sound evidence as, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: “Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God’s name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the ‘Lord God’ and the ‘Lord Christ’ which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself.” This presentation of the facts of history in the transmission of Bible manuscripts is “evidence” clearly not mere “speculation” as you assert. Paul in Romans 10:13 quoted Joel 2:32 where he say, “For everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.” If I were to read just the NASB or the NIV the whole point would be obscured! If I read Psalm 110:1 in the same versions, “The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: “Sit at my right hand.” would be obscured. And likewise Matthew quoted this Psalm at Matt 22:44. How clear can it be? Something in Matthew 22:44 is missing in many modern translations! Yes, God’s name was taken out, when Jehovah God had it initially and intentionally. In conclusion, I believe what Jesus himself told us what he had accomplished while on earth. If he had not used his father’s name, how could he have said as he did in John 17:26, “ I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”? Truthfinder |