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NASB | John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:1 In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. [Gen 1:1; Is 9:6] |
Bible Question:
Greetings Truthfinder! Long time, no see my friend! You wrote that many Bibles have changed 'Jehovah' to 'Lord', yet that is exactly what Jesus did in Matt. 4:10 - He used the word 'Lord' instead of Jehovah. So, why is it a problem to translate Jehovah as Lord? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Hi Tim, We have manuscript proof that "scribes" NOT Jesus changed the originals again and again of the Hebrew yhvh of the Hebrew texts in their translation of the LXX. They even give their reasons. After Matthew (not Jesus) wrote Jesus' words of Matt. 4:10 there is abosolutely no reason for them to suddenly (still after Jesus time) stop their tradition of substituting Lord for the yhvh in their Greek LXX (of the Greek texts) written after Matthew wrote it. We have many many Hebrew manuscripts of the Greek texts though, that have the yhvh but unfortionately no originals. Remember too, that Matthew wrote his book originally in Hebrew. I contend that Jesus used the LXX before it was changed by the scribes. And since we lack the "originals", evidence points stronger toward Jesus' not following the errors of the Jewish tradition and you cannot conclusively say Tim, that Jesus did not use his Father's name on occassion, especially when he "quoted" the Hebrew texts (whether the LXX or Hebrew writtings) that used it. It's interesting that most of the LXX manuscripts, before they were changed kept the Hebrew letters for the yhvh, yet one discovery, (the 4Q LXX Lev(b) ) presented in Supplements to Vetus Testamentum, Vol. IV, 1957, p 157, shows that the yhvh was translated also as IAO. Truthfinder |