Bible Question:
John 1:18 "18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." If Jesus is God then is it safe to say that lots of people have seen God? jm |
Bible Answer: Greetings Jm! In response to your question, I must ask you to consider the meaning of the two clauses of John 1:18. 1) First clause: 'No man hath seen God at any time...'. Yet, Ex. 24:9-10a says, " Moses and Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, and the seventy elders of Israel went up 10 and saw the God of Israel...". Jacob declares in Gen. 32:30 - "...'It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared.'". So, whatever this clause means, it does not imply what you think. It does not imply that Jesus could not be God, since others have in fact seen God in the Bible. So, what does the clause mean? Well, the second clause gives us the answer. 2) The second clause: '..., but God the One and Only, who is at the Father’s side, has made him known.' This is the climax of both this verse and the entire first chapter of John. The climax is 'God has made Himself known' in Christ. So, what does the first clause mean? Simply this, while under the old system of Law, while under the captivity of sin, no man could have a full knowledge of who God is because of sin. Yes, people saw visions of Him! Yes, people knew somethings about Him! But, sin was always a barrier to our relationship with Him and our knowledge of Him was incomplete. But now, God has made Himself fully known in the incarnate Christ. 'No man has seen God, but now God has been revealed' in Christ. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |