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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is 2 Thess. 2:7 mis-translated? | 2 Thess 2:7 | Taleb | 73288 | ||
Justme, Very interesting. (I read your note “addressed” to someone else. Sh!) “For more than the last fifty years most translations have used what is called Functional Equivalence. Also known as dynamic theory. This type of translation focuses on the ease of understanding for the intended reader.” Without knowing the terminology of such, I know this to be necessarily true. Many cultures of the world insist on a translation of scriptures focused on such ease. For example, in parts of Africa, only a thief would knock on your door. Any friend would call out, “Anybody home?” To translate in the strictest literal sense, what Jesus told John in Rev. 3:20: “I stand at the door and knock …” will not work. So, “for ease of understanding for the intended reader”, it is translated, “I stand at the door and shout.” At the same time, I take great issue with some wanna-be-cool translations. Give me a break, translators – don’t tell me “he, his”, etc. is politically incorrect. Because I don’t talk with thees, thous, and thys, (my spell check is going bananas), whenever I read KJV, (actually any version I do the same) I read it like I talk. Good visiting with you, Taleb. |
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2 | Why is 2 Thess. 2:7 mis-translated? | 2 Thess 2:7 | Morant61 | 73293 | ||
Greetings Taleb! Great illustration! I've never had to deal with translating for someone else, so I've never really finalized in my mind how I would deal with such a situation. One could change the idiom, as you mentioned, or one could note the difference in meaning between the idioms. I think that I would prefer the latter, but I understand the motivation. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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